WGU D236
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢70 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Preview sample only
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam ............................................................... 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides.................... 37
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 99
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient presents with sudden onset of limb pain, pallor, and absent distal
pulses after prolonged immobilization following hip surgery. Which
cardiovascular condition involves a blood clot blocking circulation in blood
vessels?
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Aneurysm
D. Stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
An embolism occurs when a detached thrombus or other foreign material (embolus)
travels through the bloodstream and occludes a vessel, causing acute ischemia.
Thrombosis refers to clot formation at the site, whereas an embolism specifically
involves migration and obstruction. Aneurysm is a localized vessel dilation, and
stenosis is narrowing without complete occlusion.
,2. A 28-year-old construction worker slips on a wet log and lands on a sharp
stick, puncturing his thigh. Two hours later, the wound site demonstrates
erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage. Which type of cell phagocytoses
bacteria and damaged cells as part of the innate immune response?
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation and are highly
phagocytic, engulfing bacteria and cellular debris. Basophils mediate allergic
responses via histamine release. Lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity.
Eosinophils primarily target parasitic infections and modulate allergic reactions.
3. A 17-year-old male is evaluated for infertility. Physical examination reveals
gynecomastia, small firm testes, sparse body hair, a high-pitched voice, tall
stature, and moderate intellectual disability. Which chromosomal condition
does this person most likely have?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is the most common sex chromosome disorder in
males. Clinical manifestations include hypogonadism, gynecomastia, tall stature,
reduced body hair, and varying degrees of cognitive impairment. Turner syndrome
(45,X) affects females. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) presents with distinct
craniofacial features and intellectual disability but not hypogonadism. Fragile X
syndrome is associated with macroorchidism and autism spectrum features.
,4. A newborn with Down syndrome undergoes cardiac evaluation prior to
discharge. Which congenital anomaly most commonly contributes to the
reduced survival rate observed in this population?
A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Congenital heart defects (general)
D. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Approximately 40–50% of infants with Down syndrome have congenital heart
defects, including atrioventricular septal defects, VSDs, and patent ductus arteriosus.
These structural anomalies significantly increase morbidity and mortality,
particularly in early infancy, necessitating echocardiographic screening at birth.
5. During embryonic development, the posterior neuropore fails to close by
the fourth week of gestation. Which disorder is associated with this neural
tube defect?
A. Anencephaly
B. Spina bifida
C. Encephalocele
D. Hydrocephalus
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Spina bifida results from incomplete closure of the posterior neural tube, leading to
vertebral arch defects and potential herniation of meninges or spinal cord.
Anencephaly arises from failure of the anterior neuropore to close. Encephalocele
involves herniation of brain tissue through a skull defect. Hydrocephalus is often a
secondary complication rather than a primary neural tube defect.
,hematoma commonly occurs in the frontal and temporal lobes but may also
occur in the deep white matter?
A. Epidural hematoma
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Intracerebral hematoma
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Intracerebral (intraparenchymal) hematomas frequently occur in the frontal and
temporal lobes due to rupture of small penetrating arteries (lenticulostriate
arteries) from chronic hypertension. They may also develop in deep white matter
structures such as the basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, and cerebellum. Epidural
hematomas are typically temporal and associated with middle meningeal artery
injury. Subdural hematomas spread over the cerebral convexity.
16. A patient is diagnosed with a vision disorder characterized by the eye
focusing images anterior to the retina rather than directly on it. What is the
correct classification of myopia?
A. Alteration in refraction
B. Alteration in accommodation
C. Alteration in perception
D. Alteration in conduction
Correct Answer: A
Expert Rationale:
Myopia (nearsightedness) is a refractive error caused by excessive axial length of the
eyeball or excessive corneal curvature, resulting in parallel light rays converging
before the retina. It is classified as an alteration in refraction, not accommodation
(which involves the ciliary muscle and lens for near vision), perception (cortical
processing), or conduction (neural transmission).
,64. A primary care physician documented the following symptoms and history
in a patient's record: persistent abdominal pain radiating to the back,
anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. The laboratory report showed glycosuria
and hyperglycemia. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was
conclusive and revealed the patient had which condition?
a. Colorectal cancer
b. Liver cancer
c. Gastrointestinal cancer
d. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: d. Pancreatic cancer
Expert Rationale:
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma (particularly head of pancreas) presents with painless
or persistent epigastric pain radiating to the back, obstructive jaundice, weight loss,
anorexia, and new-onset diabetes (destruction of islet cells causing glycosuria and
hyperglycemia). ERCP is both diagnostic and therapeutic, revealing the "double duct
sign" (biliary and pancreatic duct obstruction). Colorectal cancer causes occult
bleeding and obstruction; liver cancer presents with RUQ mass and AFP elevation.
65. The patient also had childhood rheumatic fever and atrial circulation.
Which condition is described?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Ventricular hypertrophy
c. Atrium dystrophy
d. Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: a. Mitral stenosis
Expert Rationale:
Rheumatic heart disease is the most common cause of mitral stenosis worldwide.
Autoimmune cross-reactivity following Group A Streptococcus infection produces
valvulitis, commissural fusion, and chordal thickening, progressively narrowing the
mitral orifice. This leads to left atrial enlargement, atrial fibrillation, and pulmonary
,congestion. The "atrial circulation" reference likely describes pulmonary venous
congestion or atrial fibrillation secondary to mitral stenosis.
66. Which sign is associated with acute blood loss?
a. Expedited capillary refill time
b. Decreased urine output
c. Retrosternal crushing chest pain
d. Flank pain
Correct Answer: b. Decreased urine output
Expert Rationale:
Acute hemorrhage triggers compensatory mechanisms including sympathetic
activation, vasoconstriction, and renal hypoperfusion. Decreased urine output
(oliguria) results from activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and
antidiuretic hormone, shunting blood to vital organs. Capillary refill would be
delayed (>3 seconds), not expedited. Retrosternal chest pain suggests cardiac
ischemia; flank pain suggests renal colic or pyelonephritis.
67. What are two possible causes of peripheral neuropathy? (Choose 2
answers)
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Lead poisoning
c. Brain attack
d. Cardiac arrest
Correct Answer: a. Vitamin B12 deficiency; b. Lead poisoning
Expert Rationale:
Peripheral neuropathy has numerous etiologies. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency
causes demyelination of peripheral nerves and posterior columns (subacute
combined degeneration), producing paresthesias and gait ataxia. Lead poisoning
causes motor-predominant neuropathy (wrist/foot drop) by interfering with heme
,Aplastic anemia is due to the lack of production of red blood cells by the bone
marrow.
What is true about obstructive lung disorders? Choose 2 answers.
They impair lung ventilation.
They impair lung inflation.
They impair lung perfusion.
They can be caused by cigarette smoking.
They can be caused by immunosuppression.
They impair lung ventilation.
They can be caused by cigarette smoking.
What is true about hypercapnia? Choose 2 answers
It is defined as a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) > 45 mm Hg.
It is defined as a partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) < 60 mm Hg.
It is defined as a respiratory rate < 12 breaths/minute.
It activates the respiratory center to increase breathing rate.
It triggers erythropoietin production.
It is defined as a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) > 45 mm Hg.
It activates the respiratory center to increase breathing rate.
What is true about the pleural space? Choose 3 answers.
It lies between the chest wall and the lung tissue.
, It has a negative pressure.
It develops positive pressure with inspiration.
It normally contains approximately 50 ml of fluid.
If air or fluid enters the pleural space, it results in restrictive pulmonary
disease.
It lies between the chest wall and the lung tissue.
It has a negative pressure.
If air or fluid enters the pleural space, it results in restrictive pulmonary disease.
At what stage of chronic kidney disease does the client require dialysis or a
transplant?
Stage IV
Stage III
Stage II
Stage V
Stage V
**In Stage V chronic kidney disease, the patient is in renal failure and requires
dialysis and transplant.
Which viral pathogen does not have the potential to cause chronic hepatitis?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
Pathophysiology
OA V2 EXAM
Actual Questions with Verified Answers
Pass the Exam with Confidence
What You Will Get:
➢70 OA Exam Questions w/ Answers
➢ (Megan/Shay’s Study Guides)
➢ Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Note
➢ Expert Rationales included.
Take and pass the OA :)
, Preview Pages Below
Get the Complete PDF After Purchase
"If you require further clarification or in need of any study resources,
feel free to Message me."
Preview sample only
,Table of Contents
D236 OA – V2 Exam ............................................................... 2
D236 Patho - Megan/Shay’s Study Guides.................... 37
Casey's WGU NY01 Patho Notes ....................................... 99
D236 OA – V2 Exam
1. A patient presents with sudden onset of limb pain, pallor, and absent distal
pulses after prolonged immobilization following hip surgery. Which
cardiovascular condition involves a blood clot blocking circulation in blood
vessels?
A. Thrombosis
B. Embolism
C. Aneurysm
D. Stenosis
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
An embolism occurs when a detached thrombus or other foreign material (embolus)
travels through the bloodstream and occludes a vessel, causing acute ischemia.
Thrombosis refers to clot formation at the site, whereas an embolism specifically
involves migration and obstruction. Aneurysm is a localized vessel dilation, and
stenosis is narrowing without complete occlusion.
,2. A 28-year-old construction worker slips on a wet log and lands on a sharp
stick, puncturing his thigh. Two hours later, the wound site demonstrates
erythema, warmth, and purulent drainage. Which type of cell phagocytoses
bacteria and damaged cells as part of the innate immune response?
A. Basophil
B. Lymphocyte
C. Neutrophil
D. Eosinophil
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Neutrophils are the first responders in acute inflammation and are highly
phagocytic, engulfing bacteria and cellular debris. Basophils mediate allergic
responses via histamine release. Lymphocytes are central to adaptive immunity.
Eosinophils primarily target parasitic infections and modulate allergic reactions.
3. A 17-year-old male is evaluated for infertility. Physical examination reveals
gynecomastia, small firm testes, sparse body hair, a high-pitched voice, tall
stature, and moderate intellectual disability. Which chromosomal condition
does this person most likely have?
A. Turner syndrome
B. Klinefelter syndrome
C. Down syndrome
D. Fragile X syndrome
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Klinefelter syndrome (47,XXY) is the most common sex chromosome disorder in
males. Clinical manifestations include hypogonadism, gynecomastia, tall stature,
reduced body hair, and varying degrees of cognitive impairment. Turner syndrome
(45,X) affects females. Down syndrome (trisomy 21) presents with distinct
craniofacial features and intellectual disability but not hypogonadism. Fragile X
syndrome is associated with macroorchidism and autism spectrum features.
,4. A newborn with Down syndrome undergoes cardiac evaluation prior to
discharge. Which congenital anomaly most commonly contributes to the
reduced survival rate observed in this population?
A. Ventricular septal defect
B. Atrial septal defect
C. Congenital heart defects (general)
D. Coarctation of the aorta
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Approximately 40–50% of infants with Down syndrome have congenital heart
defects, including atrioventricular septal defects, VSDs, and patent ductus arteriosus.
These structural anomalies significantly increase morbidity and mortality,
particularly in early infancy, necessitating echocardiographic screening at birth.
5. During embryonic development, the posterior neuropore fails to close by
the fourth week of gestation. Which disorder is associated with this neural
tube defect?
A. Anencephaly
B. Spina bifida
C. Encephalocele
D. Hydrocephalus
Correct Answer: B
Expert Rationale:
Spina bifida results from incomplete closure of the posterior neural tube, leading to
vertebral arch defects and potential herniation of meninges or spinal cord.
Anencephaly arises from failure of the anterior neuropore to close. Encephalocele
involves herniation of brain tissue through a skull defect. Hydrocephalus is often a
secondary complication rather than a primary neural tube defect.
,hematoma commonly occurs in the frontal and temporal lobes but may also
occur in the deep white matter?
A. Epidural hematoma
B. Subdural hematoma
C. Intracerebral hematoma
D. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
Correct Answer: C
Expert Rationale:
Intracerebral (intraparenchymal) hematomas frequently occur in the frontal and
temporal lobes due to rupture of small penetrating arteries (lenticulostriate
arteries) from chronic hypertension. They may also develop in deep white matter
structures such as the basal ganglia, thalamus, pons, and cerebellum. Epidural
hematomas are typically temporal and associated with middle meningeal artery
injury. Subdural hematomas spread over the cerebral convexity.
16. A patient is diagnosed with a vision disorder characterized by the eye
focusing images anterior to the retina rather than directly on it. What is the
correct classification of myopia?
A. Alteration in refraction
B. Alteration in accommodation
C. Alteration in perception
D. Alteration in conduction
Correct Answer: A
Expert Rationale:
Myopia (nearsightedness) is a refractive error caused by excessive axial length of the
eyeball or excessive corneal curvature, resulting in parallel light rays converging
before the retina. It is classified as an alteration in refraction, not accommodation
(which involves the ciliary muscle and lens for near vision), perception (cortical
processing), or conduction (neural transmission).
,64. A primary care physician documented the following symptoms and history
in a patient's record: persistent abdominal pain radiating to the back,
anorexia, jaundice, and weight loss. The laboratory report showed glycosuria
and hyperglycemia. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography was
conclusive and revealed the patient had which condition?
a. Colorectal cancer
b. Liver cancer
c. Gastrointestinal cancer
d. Pancreatic cancer
Correct Answer: d. Pancreatic cancer
Expert Rationale:
Pancreatic adenocarcinoma (particularly head of pancreas) presents with painless
or persistent epigastric pain radiating to the back, obstructive jaundice, weight loss,
anorexia, and new-onset diabetes (destruction of islet cells causing glycosuria and
hyperglycemia). ERCP is both diagnostic and therapeutic, revealing the "double duct
sign" (biliary and pancreatic duct obstruction). Colorectal cancer causes occult
bleeding and obstruction; liver cancer presents with RUQ mass and AFP elevation.
65. The patient also had childhood rheumatic fever and atrial circulation.
Which condition is described?
a. Mitral stenosis
b. Ventricular hypertrophy
c. Atrium dystrophy
d. Ventricular septal defect
Correct Answer: a. Mitral stenosis
Expert Rationale:
Rheumatic heart disease is the most common cause of mitral stenosis worldwide.
Autoimmune cross-reactivity following Group A Streptococcus infection produces
valvulitis, commissural fusion, and chordal thickening, progressively narrowing the
mitral orifice. This leads to left atrial enlargement, atrial fibrillation, and pulmonary
,congestion. The "atrial circulation" reference likely describes pulmonary venous
congestion or atrial fibrillation secondary to mitral stenosis.
66. Which sign is associated with acute blood loss?
a. Expedited capillary refill time
b. Decreased urine output
c. Retrosternal crushing chest pain
d. Flank pain
Correct Answer: b. Decreased urine output
Expert Rationale:
Acute hemorrhage triggers compensatory mechanisms including sympathetic
activation, vasoconstriction, and renal hypoperfusion. Decreased urine output
(oliguria) results from activation of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system and
antidiuretic hormone, shunting blood to vital organs. Capillary refill would be
delayed (>3 seconds), not expedited. Retrosternal chest pain suggests cardiac
ischemia; flank pain suggests renal colic or pyelonephritis.
67. What are two possible causes of peripheral neuropathy? (Choose 2
answers)
a. Vitamin B12 deficiency
b. Lead poisoning
c. Brain attack
d. Cardiac arrest
Correct Answer: a. Vitamin B12 deficiency; b. Lead poisoning
Expert Rationale:
Peripheral neuropathy has numerous etiologies. Vitamin B12 (cobalamin) deficiency
causes demyelination of peripheral nerves and posterior columns (subacute
combined degeneration), producing paresthesias and gait ataxia. Lead poisoning
causes motor-predominant neuropathy (wrist/foot drop) by interfering with heme
,Aplastic anemia is due to the lack of production of red blood cells by the bone
marrow.
What is true about obstructive lung disorders? Choose 2 answers.
They impair lung ventilation.
They impair lung inflation.
They impair lung perfusion.
They can be caused by cigarette smoking.
They can be caused by immunosuppression.
They impair lung ventilation.
They can be caused by cigarette smoking.
What is true about hypercapnia? Choose 2 answers
It is defined as a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) > 45 mm Hg.
It is defined as a partial pressure of oxygen (pO2) < 60 mm Hg.
It is defined as a respiratory rate < 12 breaths/minute.
It activates the respiratory center to increase breathing rate.
It triggers erythropoietin production.
It is defined as a partial pressure of carbon dioxide (pCO2) > 45 mm Hg.
It activates the respiratory center to increase breathing rate.
What is true about the pleural space? Choose 3 answers.
It lies between the chest wall and the lung tissue.
, It has a negative pressure.
It develops positive pressure with inspiration.
It normally contains approximately 50 ml of fluid.
If air or fluid enters the pleural space, it results in restrictive pulmonary
disease.
It lies between the chest wall and the lung tissue.
It has a negative pressure.
If air or fluid enters the pleural space, it results in restrictive pulmonary disease.
At what stage of chronic kidney disease does the client require dialysis or a
transplant?
Stage IV
Stage III
Stage II
Stage V
Stage V
**In Stage V chronic kidney disease, the patient is in renal failure and requires
dialysis and transplant.
Which viral pathogen does not have the potential to cause chronic hepatitis?
Hepatitis A
Hepatitis D
