ATI NUTRITION 2026 BUDDLE EXAM REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS|GRADE A+. EXAM
with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Macronutrient Metabolism and Clinical Requirements
2. Therapeutic Diets across the Lifespan
3. Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support Management
4. Clinical Nutrition in Gastrointestinal and Metabolic Disorders
1. A nurse is planning nutritional care for a client with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which of the following dietary modifications is most appropriate to minimize
dyspnea and optimize energy intake?
A. Providing three large, nutrient-dense meals per day with minimal fluid restriction
B. Offering small, frequent meals high in calories and protein with foods that require minimal
preparation
C. Increasing carbohydrate intake relative to fats to reduce metabolic carbon dioxide production
D. Encouraging high-fiber raw vegetables and cold carbonated beverages to stimulate digestion
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Clients with COPD experience dyspnea that can cause early satiety and fatigue
during large meals, making small, frequent, energy-dense meals essential to prevent
malnutrition. Fats produce less carbon dioxide per unit of oxygen consumed than carbohydrates,
so a high-fat, moderate-carbohydrate ratio is preferred. High-fiber foods and carbonation can
cause abdominal distension, worsening diaphragmatic restriction.
2. A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.
Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing enteral feeding
intolerance?
, A. Gastric residual volume of 120 mL measured after 4 hours of continuous feeding
B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L and steady daily weight
C. Abdominal distension, cramping, and three episodes of watery diarrhea within 24 hours
D. Soft, non-tender abdomen with active bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and distension are classic clinical indicators of
enteral formula intolerance, often caused by rapid infusion rates, hyperosmolar formulas, or
bacterial contamination. A residual volume of 120 mL is generally acceptable since protocols
typically flag residual volumes exceeding 250 to 500 mL. Normal abdominal exam findings and
electrolyte balance indicate good tolerance.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with newly diagnosed chronic kidney
disease (CKD) Stage 4 who is not yet on dialysis. Which of the following dietary interventions
should the nurse include?
A. Unrestricted dietary protein intake to prevent catabolism and muscle wasting
B. Strict restriction of dietary phosphorus, potassium, and sodium intake
C. Encouraging high amounts of dark green leafy vegetables, nuts, and whole grains
D. Eliminating all water and restricting total daily fluid intake to less than 500 mL
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: In advanced CKD (Stage 4), the kidneys fail to adequately filter electrolytes and
metabolic waste, necessitating strict limitations on phosphorus, potassium, and sodium to
prevent hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, and fluid overload. Protein intake is typically
restricted, not increased, to reduce the buildup of uremic toxins. Dark green leafy vegetables and
nuts are exceptionally high in potassium and phosphorus, making them hazardous.
4. A nurse is managing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered via a peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC) for a client with severe enterocutaneous fistulas. The TPN solution is scheduled
to finish, but the new bag has not yet arrived from the pharmacy. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take immediately?
A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at the prescribed TPN rate until the new solution arrives
B. Discontinue the intravenous line and flush the lumen with heparinized saline
C. Wait for the new TPN bag to arrive since a 1-hour delay carries no physiological risk
, D. Administer a rapid intravenous bolus of regular insulin to prevent sudden hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Abruptly discontinuing TPN places the client at high risk for severe rebound
hypoglycemia due to the high levels of endogenous insulin circulating in response to the constant
high-glucose infusion. Infusing an isotonic dextrose solution such as D5W at the same rate
bridges the gap until the new TPN bag is ready.
5. A nurse is assessing an older adult client for nutritional status. Which of the following
physiological changes associated with aging increases the client's risk for micronutrient
deficiencies?
A. Increased gastric hydrochloric acid secretion enhancing mineral absorption
B. Decreased intrinsic factor production and reduced gastric acid secretion
C. Accelerated gastrointestinal motility resulting in prolonged nutrient exposure
D. Enhanced renal tubular reabsorption of water-soluble vitamins
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Aging is commonly associated with atrophic gastritis, leading to decreased gastric
hydrochloric acid (achlorhydria) and reduced intrinsic factor production, which impairs the
absorption of vitamin B12, iron, and calcium. Gastrointestinal motility typically slows down with
age rather than speeds up.
6. A nurse is planning dietary education for a client with a history of recurrent calcium oxalate
kidney stones. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching
plan?
A. Restrict dietary calcium intake strictly to less than 400 mg per day
B. Maintain a high fluid intake to dilute urine and avoid high-oxalate foods like spinach and nuts
C. Increase daily intake of foods high in purines and animal protein
D. Take high-dose Vitamin C supplements daily to acidify the urine
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Current evidence shows that restricting dietary calcium can actually increase the
absorption of oxalate in the gut, thereby worsening stone formation; instead, normal calcium
intake paired with low oxalate and high fluid intake is recommended. High-dose Vitamin C
breaks down into oxalate, and high purines promote uric acid stones.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a client with dumping syndrome following a partial gastrectomy. Which of
the following dietary instructions should the nurse reinforce?
A. Consume large meals containing high concentrations of concentrated simple sugars
B. Drink at least 500 mL of fluids during each meal to aid food transit
C. Lie down flat immediately after consuming a meal to slow gastric emptying
D. Ingest high-carbohydrate liquids between meals and avoid lying down
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Lying down after a meal helps slow gastric emptying and reduces the rapid rush of
hypertonic fluid into the jejunum that causes dumping syndrome symptoms. Fluids should be
avoided during meals and taken at least 30 to 60 minutes afterward, and simple sugars should be
strictly limited.
8. A nurse is calculating the body mass index (BMI) for an adult client who is 170 cm (67 inches)
tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lbs). Which of the following BMI categories does this client fall into?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obesity class II
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: BMI is calculated using weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared
($BMI = .70^2 = .89 = 29.4$). A BMI between 25.0 and 29.9 is classified as
overweight.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is transitioning from strict bowel rest to
oral nutrition. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for the initial oral feeding?
A. High-fat, low-carbohydrate ketogenic diet
B. Low-fat, frequent small meals consisting of easily digestible carbohydrates and proteins
C. Full liquid diet including whole milk, cream soups, and ice cream
D. High-fiber diet containing raw fruits, vegetables, and whole grains
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS|GRADE A+. EXAM
with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Macronutrient Metabolism and Clinical Requirements
2. Therapeutic Diets across the Lifespan
3. Enteral and Parenteral Nutrition Support Management
4. Clinical Nutrition in Gastrointestinal and Metabolic Disorders
1. A nurse is planning nutritional care for a client with severe chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease (COPD). Which of the following dietary modifications is most appropriate to minimize
dyspnea and optimize energy intake?
A. Providing three large, nutrient-dense meals per day with minimal fluid restriction
B. Offering small, frequent meals high in calories and protein with foods that require minimal
preparation
C. Increasing carbohydrate intake relative to fats to reduce metabolic carbon dioxide production
D. Encouraging high-fiber raw vegetables and cold carbonated beverages to stimulate digestion
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Clients with COPD experience dyspnea that can cause early satiety and fatigue
during large meals, making small, frequent, energy-dense meals essential to prevent
malnutrition. Fats produce less carbon dioxide per unit of oxygen consumed than carbohydrates,
so a high-fat, moderate-carbohydrate ratio is preferred. High-fiber foods and carbonation can
cause abdominal distension, worsening diaphragmatic restriction.
2. A nurse is evaluating a client who is receiving continuous enteral nutrition via a nasogastric tube.
Which of the following findings indicates that the client is experiencing enteral feeding
intolerance?
, A. Gastric residual volume of 120 mL measured after 4 hours of continuous feeding
B. Serum sodium level of 138 mEq/L and steady daily weight
C. Abdominal distension, cramping, and three episodes of watery diarrhea within 24 hours
D. Soft, non-tender abdomen with active bowel sounds heard in all four quadrants
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Diarrhea, abdominal cramping, and distension are classic clinical indicators of
enteral formula intolerance, often caused by rapid infusion rates, hyperosmolar formulas, or
bacterial contamination. A residual volume of 120 mL is generally acceptable since protocols
typically flag residual volumes exceeding 250 to 500 mL. Normal abdominal exam findings and
electrolyte balance indicate good tolerance.
3. A nurse is providing discharge instructions to a client with newly diagnosed chronic kidney
disease (CKD) Stage 4 who is not yet on dialysis. Which of the following dietary interventions
should the nurse include?
A. Unrestricted dietary protein intake to prevent catabolism and muscle wasting
B. Strict restriction of dietary phosphorus, potassium, and sodium intake
C. Encouraging high amounts of dark green leafy vegetables, nuts, and whole grains
D. Eliminating all water and restricting total daily fluid intake to less than 500 mL
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: In advanced CKD (Stage 4), the kidneys fail to adequately filter electrolytes and
metabolic waste, necessitating strict limitations on phosphorus, potassium, and sodium to
prevent hyperphosphatemia, hyperkalemia, and fluid overload. Protein intake is typically
restricted, not increased, to reduce the buildup of uremic toxins. Dark green leafy vegetables and
nuts are exceptionally high in potassium and phosphorus, making them hazardous.
4. A nurse is managing total parenteral nutrition (TPN) delivered via a peripherally inserted central
catheter (PICC) for a client with severe enterocutaneous fistulas. The TPN solution is scheduled
to finish, but the new bag has not yet arrived from the pharmacy. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take immediately?
A. Infuse 5% dextrose in water (D5W) at the prescribed TPN rate until the new solution arrives
B. Discontinue the intravenous line and flush the lumen with heparinized saline
C. Wait for the new TPN bag to arrive since a 1-hour delay carries no physiological risk
, D. Administer a rapid intravenous bolus of regular insulin to prevent sudden hyperglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Abruptly discontinuing TPN places the client at high risk for severe rebound
hypoglycemia due to the high levels of endogenous insulin circulating in response to the constant
high-glucose infusion. Infusing an isotonic dextrose solution such as D5W at the same rate
bridges the gap until the new TPN bag is ready.
5. A nurse is assessing an older adult client for nutritional status. Which of the following
physiological changes associated with aging increases the client's risk for micronutrient
deficiencies?
A. Increased gastric hydrochloric acid secretion enhancing mineral absorption
B. Decreased intrinsic factor production and reduced gastric acid secretion
C. Accelerated gastrointestinal motility resulting in prolonged nutrient exposure
D. Enhanced renal tubular reabsorption of water-soluble vitamins
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Aging is commonly associated with atrophic gastritis, leading to decreased gastric
hydrochloric acid (achlorhydria) and reduced intrinsic factor production, which impairs the
absorption of vitamin B12, iron, and calcium. Gastrointestinal motility typically slows down with
age rather than speeds up.
6. A nurse is planning dietary education for a client with a history of recurrent calcium oxalate
kidney stones. Which of the following recommendations should the nurse include in the teaching
plan?
A. Restrict dietary calcium intake strictly to less than 400 mg per day
B. Maintain a high fluid intake to dilute urine and avoid high-oxalate foods like spinach and nuts
C. Increase daily intake of foods high in purines and animal protein
D. Take high-dose Vitamin C supplements daily to acidify the urine
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Current evidence shows that restricting dietary calcium can actually increase the
absorption of oxalate in the gut, thereby worsening stone formation; instead, normal calcium
intake paired with low oxalate and high fluid intake is recommended. High-dose Vitamin C
breaks down into oxalate, and high purines promote uric acid stones.
, 7. A nurse is caring for a client with dumping syndrome following a partial gastrectomy. Which of
the following dietary instructions should the nurse reinforce?
A. Consume large meals containing high concentrations of concentrated simple sugars
B. Drink at least 500 mL of fluids during each meal to aid food transit
C. Lie down flat immediately after consuming a meal to slow gastric emptying
D. Ingest high-carbohydrate liquids between meals and avoid lying down
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Lying down after a meal helps slow gastric emptying and reduces the rapid rush of
hypertonic fluid into the jejunum that causes dumping syndrome symptoms. Fluids should be
avoided during meals and taken at least 30 to 60 minutes afterward, and simple sugars should be
strictly limited.
8. A nurse is calculating the body mass index (BMI) for an adult client who is 170 cm (67 inches)
tall and weighs 85 kg (187 lbs). Which of the following BMI categories does this client fall into?
A. Underweight
B. Normal weight
C. Overweight
D. Obesity class II
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: BMI is calculated using weight in kilograms divided by height in meters squared
($BMI = .70^2 = .89 = 29.4$). A BMI between 25.0 and 29.9 is classified as
overweight.
9. A nurse is caring for a client with acute pancreatitis who is transitioning from strict bowel rest to
oral nutrition. Which of the following diets is most appropriate for the initial oral feeding?
A. High-fat, low-carbohydrate ketogenic diet
B. Low-fat, frequent small meals consisting of easily digestible carbohydrates and proteins
C. Full liquid diet including whole milk, cream soups, and ice cream
D. High-fiber diet containing raw fruits, vegetables, and whole grains
