WGU D444 ADULT HEALTH 1 OA EXAM
/LATEST WGU D444 ADULT HEALTH 1
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT VERSION 1 &
VERSION 2 APPROVED EXAM 2026/2027
TESTBANK COMPLETE ACCURATE
QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) CURRENT
SECTION 1: GENERAL ASSESSMENT PRINCIPLES
Question 1: What is the first step in performing an objective assessment?
• A. Inspect the patient
• B. Palpate the abdomen
• C. Wash hands and introduce yourself to the patient
• D. Auscultate breath sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step in any patient assessment is to wash hands and introduce
yourself to the patient. This establishes rapport, ensures infection control, and
confirms patient identity. Clinical assessment techniques follow.
,Question 2: What is the correct order for an objective assessment?
• A. Palpation → Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion
• B. Inspection → Palpation → Percussion → Auscultation
• C. Auscultation → Inspection → Palpation → Percussion
• D. Inspection → Auscultation → Palpation → Percussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is Inspection → Palpation → Percussion → Auscultation,
EXCEPT for the abdomen where auscultation comes before palpation to avoid
altering bowel sounds.
Question 3: What is the purpose of an objective assessment?
• A. To gather subjective data only
• B. To gather objective data (signs) to support subjective data (symptoms)
and identify health problems
• C. To diagnose medical conditions
• D. To prescribe medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of an objective assessment is to gather measurable,
observable data (signs) that support subjective data (symptoms) and help identify
health problems. Nurses assess, not diagnose or prescribe.
Question 4: What is the normal range for SpO₂ (oxygen saturation)?
, • A. 80–85%
• B. 85–90%
• C. ≥ 95%
• D. 90–94%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal oxygen saturation (SpO₂) is ≥ 95% for healthy individuals. COPD
patients may have a target of 88–92%. SpO₂ below 90% indicates hypoxemia
requiring intervention.
Question 5: What is the normal range for respiratory rate?
• A. 8–12 breaths per minute
• B. 12–20 breaths per minute
• C. 20–28 breaths per minute
• D. 28–36 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal respiratory rate for adults is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates
outside this range may indicate respiratory distress or compensation.
SECTION 2: FLUID & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
Question 6: A patient has a serum sodium of 118 mEq/L. Which intervention is the
priority?
• A. Restrict free water intake
, • B. Administer 3% NaCl
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage oral fluids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyponatremia (Na < 120 mEq/L) causes cerebral edema and
increases seizure risk. Safety is the priority—implement seizure precautions first.
While free water restriction and hypertonic saline may be indicated, protecting the
patient from injury due to seizures is the immediate priority.
Question 7: A patient is receiving IV fluids and develops crackles in the lungs,
jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema. The nurse suspects:
• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Fluid volume excess
• C. Anaphylactic reaction
• D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles, JVD, and peripheral edema are classic signs of fluid volume
excess (hypervolemia), often due to heart failure or excessive fluid administration.
Hypovolemia would present with hypotension, tachycardia, and dry mucous
membranes.
/LATEST WGU D444 ADULT HEALTH 1
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT VERSION 1 &
VERSION 2 APPROVED EXAM 2026/2027
TESTBANK COMPLETE ACCURATE
QUESTIONS WITH WELL ELABORATED
ANSWERS & RATIONALES (100%
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS) CURRENT
SECTION 1: GENERAL ASSESSMENT PRINCIPLES
Question 1: What is the first step in performing an objective assessment?
• A. Inspect the patient
• B. Palpate the abdomen
• C. Wash hands and introduce yourself to the patient
• D. Auscultate breath sounds
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The first step in any patient assessment is to wash hands and introduce
yourself to the patient. This establishes rapport, ensures infection control, and
confirms patient identity. Clinical assessment techniques follow.
,Question 2: What is the correct order for an objective assessment?
• A. Palpation → Inspection → Auscultation → Percussion
• B. Inspection → Palpation → Percussion → Auscultation
• C. Auscultation → Inspection → Palpation → Percussion
• D. Inspection → Auscultation → Palpation → Percussion
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The correct order is Inspection → Palpation → Percussion → Auscultation,
EXCEPT for the abdomen where auscultation comes before palpation to avoid
altering bowel sounds.
Question 3: What is the purpose of an objective assessment?
• A. To gather subjective data only
• B. To gather objective data (signs) to support subjective data (symptoms)
and identify health problems
• C. To diagnose medical conditions
• D. To prescribe medications
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The purpose of an objective assessment is to gather measurable,
observable data (signs) that support subjective data (symptoms) and help identify
health problems. Nurses assess, not diagnose or prescribe.
Question 4: What is the normal range for SpO₂ (oxygen saturation)?
, • A. 80–85%
• B. 85–90%
• C. ≥ 95%
• D. 90–94%
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Normal oxygen saturation (SpO₂) is ≥ 95% for healthy individuals. COPD
patients may have a target of 88–92%. SpO₂ below 90% indicates hypoxemia
requiring intervention.
Question 5: What is the normal range for respiratory rate?
• A. 8–12 breaths per minute
• B. 12–20 breaths per minute
• C. 20–28 breaths per minute
• D. 28–36 breaths per minute
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Normal respiratory rate for adults is 12–20 breaths per minute. Rates
outside this range may indicate respiratory distress or compensation.
SECTION 2: FLUID & ELECTROLYTE BALANCE
Question 6: A patient has a serum sodium of 118 mEq/L. Which intervention is the
priority?
• A. Restrict free water intake
, • B. Administer 3% NaCl
• C. Implement seizure precautions
• D. Encourage oral fluids
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Severe hyponatremia (Na < 120 mEq/L) causes cerebral edema and
increases seizure risk. Safety is the priority—implement seizure precautions first.
While free water restriction and hypertonic saline may be indicated, protecting the
patient from injury due to seizures is the immediate priority.
Question 7: A patient is receiving IV fluids and develops crackles in the lungs,
jugular venous distention, and peripheral edema. The nurse suspects:
• A. Hypovolemia
• B. Fluid volume excess
• C. Anaphylactic reaction
• D. Pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Crackles, JVD, and peripheral edema are classic signs of fluid volume
excess (hypervolemia), often due to heart failure or excessive fluid administration.
Hypovolemia would present with hypotension, tachycardia, and dry mucous
membranes.
