NSG 300 Foundations of Nursing Exam Prep Document |
2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NSG 300 Exam 1, 2, 3 & FINAL 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest GCU Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive review guide compiles 250 verified questions and answers covering all major
exams (1, 2, 3) and the final for NSG 300 Foundations of Nursing at Grand Canyon University. Each
entry includes a correct answer and a detailed rationale to deepen understanding of fundamental
nursing concepts. Designed for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures alignment with the
latest curriculum and evidence-based practice standards.
Abstract:
This document is a meticulously curated compilation of 250 exam-style questions and corresponding answers with
rationales for NSG 300 Foundations of Nursing at Grand Canyon University. The content is structured to mirror
the progression of exams throughout the course, covering essential topics such as the nursing process, health
assessment, infection control, medication administration, communication, and professional ethics. Each question is
designed to test both recall and application, with rationales that explain the correct answer and address plausible
distractors. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource aligns with the latest evidence-based nursing
practices and Grand Canyon University's curriculum standards. It serves as a comprehensive tool for exam
preparation, promoting deep learning and retention of foundational nursing concepts.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Nursing Process and Critical 1-45 Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, 18%
Thinking Implementation, Evaluation
Vital Signs and Health 46-90 Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, Blood 18%
Assessment Pressure, Pain, Physical Exam Techniques
Infection Control and Safety 91-135 Standard Precautions, Hand Hygiene, PPE, 18%
Isolation, Fire Safety, Fall Prevention
Medication Administration and 136-175 Routes of Administration, Six Rights, 16%
Dosage Calculations Dosage Calculations, IV Therapy, Adverse
Effects
Communication and 176-210 Therapeutic Communication, SBAR, 14%
Documentation Charting, Confidentiality, Patient Education
Professionalism, Ethics, and 211-240 Nursing Code of Ethics, Informed Consent, 12%
Legal Issues Advance Directives, Delegation, HIPAA
Comprehensive Final Review 241-250 Integrated concepts across all exams, 4%
prioritization, clinical judgment
Page 1
,Q1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a terminal illness who requests withdrawal of life-sustaining
treatment. The nurse personally believes all life should be preserved but respects the patient's right
to refuse treatment. Which ethical principle is the nurse primarily demonstrating?
A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
Correct Answer: C. Autonomy
Rationale: Respecting the patient's right to refuse treatment despite personal beliefs exemplifies respect
for autonomy. Beneficence (doing good) and nonmaleficence (avoiding harm) are secondary, as the
patient's self-determination is paramount. Justice (fairness) is not directly relevant.
Why Wrong:
A - Beneficence would prioritize doing what the nurse perceives as good, not the patient's choice.
B - Nonmaleficence focuses on avoiding harm, but here the nurse is respecting the patient's
autonomy over potential harm.
D - Justice concerns fair distribution of resources, not individual treatment decisions.
Reference: Butts, J.B. & Rich, K.L. (2022). Nursing Ethics: Across the Curriculum and Into Practice, 6th
Ed., Ch. 3
Q2. A nurse fails to implement a fall risk protocol for a patient who subsequently falls and sustains
a hip fracture. The patient sues for negligence. To prove negligence, which element must be
established by the plaintiff?
A. The nurse intended to cause harm
B. The nurse's actions caused the injury
C. The patient was at high risk for falls
D. The hospital had a policy on fall prevention
Correct Answer: B. The nurse's actions caused the injury
Rationale: Causation (proximate cause) is a required element of negligence: the plaintiff must show a
direct link between the nurse's breach of duty and the injury. Intent is not required (negligence is
unintentional). The existence of a policy (D) supports duty, but causation must still be proven.
Why Wrong:
A - Negligence does not require intent; it is an unintentional tort.
C - Patient risk level may establish duty but not causation.
D - Policy existence shows standard of care, but not that the breach caused injury.
Reference: Pozgar, G.D. (2019). Legal and Ethical Issues for Health Professionals, 5th Ed., Ch. 4
Page 2
,Q3. A nurse observes that a patient's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air and auscultates crackles
in bilateral lung bases. The nurse then checks for peripheral edema and reviews recent intake and
output. Which phase of the nursing process does this represent?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: A. Assessment
Rationale: Collecting data (vital signs, lung sounds, edema, I&O) is the assessment phase. Diagnosis
occurs when the nurse analyzes data to form a nursing diagnosis. Planning involves setting goals, and
implementation is performing interventions.
Why Wrong:
B - Diagnosis involves analyzing data to identify a problem, not just collecting it.
C - Planning focuses on outcome setting and intervention selection.
D - Implementation is carrying out interventions, not gathering data.
Reference: Treas, L.S. & Wilkinson, J.M. (2023). Basic Nursing: Thinking, Doing, and Caring, 3rd Ed.,
Ch. 7
Q4. A nurse reads a study comparing two wound dressings. The p-value is 0.04, and the confidence
interval for the difference in healing rates is (0.2, 1.5) days favoring dressing A. Which
interpretation is most accurate?
A. There is a 4% chance that dressing A is actually worse
B. The result is statistically significant but may not be clinically significant
C. There is a 96% probability that dressing A is better than dressing B
D. The null hypothesis is proven false
Correct Answer: B. The result is statistically significant but may not be clinically significant
Rationale: Statistical significance (p<0.05) indicates the difference is unlikely due to chance, but the
clinical significance depends on effect size (0.2-1.5 days may be small). The p-value does not give
probability of effectiveness (C) or prove the null false (D). Option A misinterprets p-value as the chance
the null is true.
Why Wrong:
A - The p-value is the probability of observing the data if the null is true, not the chance that the
alternative is false.
C - The p-value does not directly indicate the probability that one treatment is better.
D - A significant p-value allows rejection of the null, but does not prove it false with certainty.
Reference: Polit, D.F. & Beck, C.T. (2021). Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for
Nursing Practice, 11th Ed., Ch. 13
Page 3
, Q5. A nurse is assigned to a patient with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis who requires airborne
precautions. Which combination of protective measures is correct?
A. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator, and surgical mask for patient during transport
B. Private room with positive pressure, surgical mask for staff, and patient wears N95
C. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator for staff, and patient wears a surgical mask
during transport
D. Cohorting with other TB patients, using a standard surgical mask for all interactions
Correct Answer: C. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator for staff, and patient wears
a surgical mask during transport
Rationale: Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room, N95 or higher respirator for staff,
and the patient wears a surgical mask when outside the room to contain droplets. Option A has a patient
wearing surgical mask during transport (correct) but is incomplete. Option B uses wrong pressure and
mask type. Option D is inappropriate for TB.
Why Wrong:
A - Patient wearing surgical mask during transport is correct, but the option does not specify room
pressure and is less complete than C.
B - Positive pressure would allow contaminants to escape; staff should use N95, not surgical mask.
D - Cohorting is not recommended; surgical masks do not protect staff from airborne TB.
Reference: Siegel, J.D. et al. (2007). Guideline for Isolation Precautions. HICPAC. Updated 2024.
Q6. A patient admitted with sepsis has a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure 88/50 mmHg, and
urine output 0.3 mL/kg/hr over 2 hours. After fluid resuscitation, which finding indicates the need
for further assessment and possible vasopressor therapy?
A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains <65 mmHg despite adequate fluids
B. Central venous pressure (CVP) rises to 12 mmHg
C. Lactate level decreases from 4.0 to 2.5 mmol/L
D. Urine output increases to 0.8 mL/kg/hr
Correct Answer: A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains <65 mmHg despite adequate fluids
Rationale: In sepsis, a MAP <65 mmHg after adequate fluid resuscitation indicates vasopressor need per
surviving sepsis guidelines. Rising CVP (B) may suggest fluid overload. Decreasing lactate (C) and
increasing urine output (D) are positive signs, not indications for vasopressors.
Why Wrong:
B - CVP 12 mmHg is within normal range and does not indicate hypoperfusion requiring
vasopressors.
C - Declining lactate indicates improving tissue perfusion, a good sign.
D - Increased urine output suggests adequate renal perfusion; no vasopressor needed.
Reference: Rhodes, A. et al. (2017). Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Intensive Care Med. 43:304-377.
Page 4
2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NSG 300 Exam 1, 2, 3 & FINAL 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest GCU Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive review guide compiles 250 verified questions and answers covering all major
exams (1, 2, 3) and the final for NSG 300 Foundations of Nursing at Grand Canyon University. Each
entry includes a correct answer and a detailed rationale to deepen understanding of fundamental
nursing concepts. Designed for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures alignment with the
latest curriculum and evidence-based practice standards.
Abstract:
This document is a meticulously curated compilation of 250 exam-style questions and corresponding answers with
rationales for NSG 300 Foundations of Nursing at Grand Canyon University. The content is structured to mirror
the progression of exams throughout the course, covering essential topics such as the nursing process, health
assessment, infection control, medication administration, communication, and professional ethics. Each question is
designed to test both recall and application, with rationales that explain the correct answer and address plausible
distractors. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource aligns with the latest evidence-based nursing
practices and Grand Canyon University's curriculum standards. It serves as a comprehensive tool for exam
preparation, promoting deep learning and retention of foundational nursing concepts.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Nursing Process and Critical 1-45 Assessment, Diagnosis, Planning, 18%
Thinking Implementation, Evaluation
Vital Signs and Health 46-90 Temperature, Pulse, Respiration, Blood 18%
Assessment Pressure, Pain, Physical Exam Techniques
Infection Control and Safety 91-135 Standard Precautions, Hand Hygiene, PPE, 18%
Isolation, Fire Safety, Fall Prevention
Medication Administration and 136-175 Routes of Administration, Six Rights, 16%
Dosage Calculations Dosage Calculations, IV Therapy, Adverse
Effects
Communication and 176-210 Therapeutic Communication, SBAR, 14%
Documentation Charting, Confidentiality, Patient Education
Professionalism, Ethics, and 211-240 Nursing Code of Ethics, Informed Consent, 12%
Legal Issues Advance Directives, Delegation, HIPAA
Comprehensive Final Review 241-250 Integrated concepts across all exams, 4%
prioritization, clinical judgment
Page 1
,Q1. A nurse is caring for a patient with a terminal illness who requests withdrawal of life-sustaining
treatment. The nurse personally believes all life should be preserved but respects the patient's right
to refuse treatment. Which ethical principle is the nurse primarily demonstrating?
A. Beneficence
B. Nonmaleficence
C. Autonomy
D. Justice
Correct Answer: C. Autonomy
Rationale: Respecting the patient's right to refuse treatment despite personal beliefs exemplifies respect
for autonomy. Beneficence (doing good) and nonmaleficence (avoiding harm) are secondary, as the
patient's self-determination is paramount. Justice (fairness) is not directly relevant.
Why Wrong:
A - Beneficence would prioritize doing what the nurse perceives as good, not the patient's choice.
B - Nonmaleficence focuses on avoiding harm, but here the nurse is respecting the patient's
autonomy over potential harm.
D - Justice concerns fair distribution of resources, not individual treatment decisions.
Reference: Butts, J.B. & Rich, K.L. (2022). Nursing Ethics: Across the Curriculum and Into Practice, 6th
Ed., Ch. 3
Q2. A nurse fails to implement a fall risk protocol for a patient who subsequently falls and sustains
a hip fracture. The patient sues for negligence. To prove negligence, which element must be
established by the plaintiff?
A. The nurse intended to cause harm
B. The nurse's actions caused the injury
C. The patient was at high risk for falls
D. The hospital had a policy on fall prevention
Correct Answer: B. The nurse's actions caused the injury
Rationale: Causation (proximate cause) is a required element of negligence: the plaintiff must show a
direct link between the nurse's breach of duty and the injury. Intent is not required (negligence is
unintentional). The existence of a policy (D) supports duty, but causation must still be proven.
Why Wrong:
A - Negligence does not require intent; it is an unintentional tort.
C - Patient risk level may establish duty but not causation.
D - Policy existence shows standard of care, but not that the breach caused injury.
Reference: Pozgar, G.D. (2019). Legal and Ethical Issues for Health Professionals, 5th Ed., Ch. 4
Page 2
,Q3. A nurse observes that a patient's oxygen saturation is 90% on room air and auscultates crackles
in bilateral lung bases. The nurse then checks for peripheral edema and reviews recent intake and
output. Which phase of the nursing process does this represent?
A. Assessment
B. Diagnosis
C. Planning
D. Implementation
Correct Answer: A. Assessment
Rationale: Collecting data (vital signs, lung sounds, edema, I&O) is the assessment phase. Diagnosis
occurs when the nurse analyzes data to form a nursing diagnosis. Planning involves setting goals, and
implementation is performing interventions.
Why Wrong:
B - Diagnosis involves analyzing data to identify a problem, not just collecting it.
C - Planning focuses on outcome setting and intervention selection.
D - Implementation is carrying out interventions, not gathering data.
Reference: Treas, L.S. & Wilkinson, J.M. (2023). Basic Nursing: Thinking, Doing, and Caring, 3rd Ed.,
Ch. 7
Q4. A nurse reads a study comparing two wound dressings. The p-value is 0.04, and the confidence
interval for the difference in healing rates is (0.2, 1.5) days favoring dressing A. Which
interpretation is most accurate?
A. There is a 4% chance that dressing A is actually worse
B. The result is statistically significant but may not be clinically significant
C. There is a 96% probability that dressing A is better than dressing B
D. The null hypothesis is proven false
Correct Answer: B. The result is statistically significant but may not be clinically significant
Rationale: Statistical significance (p<0.05) indicates the difference is unlikely due to chance, but the
clinical significance depends on effect size (0.2-1.5 days may be small). The p-value does not give
probability of effectiveness (C) or prove the null false (D). Option A misinterprets p-value as the chance
the null is true.
Why Wrong:
A - The p-value is the probability of observing the data if the null is true, not the chance that the
alternative is false.
C - The p-value does not directly indicate the probability that one treatment is better.
D - A significant p-value allows rejection of the null, but does not prove it false with certainty.
Reference: Polit, D.F. & Beck, C.T. (2021). Nursing Research: Generating and Assessing Evidence for
Nursing Practice, 11th Ed., Ch. 13
Page 3
, Q5. A nurse is assigned to a patient with multidrug-resistant tuberculosis who requires airborne
precautions. Which combination of protective measures is correct?
A. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator, and surgical mask for patient during transport
B. Private room with positive pressure, surgical mask for staff, and patient wears N95
C. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator for staff, and patient wears a surgical mask
during transport
D. Cohorting with other TB patients, using a standard surgical mask for all interactions
Correct Answer: C. Private room with negative pressure, N95 respirator for staff, and patient wears
a surgical mask during transport
Rationale: Airborne precautions require a negative pressure room, N95 or higher respirator for staff,
and the patient wears a surgical mask when outside the room to contain droplets. Option A has a patient
wearing surgical mask during transport (correct) but is incomplete. Option B uses wrong pressure and
mask type. Option D is inappropriate for TB.
Why Wrong:
A - Patient wearing surgical mask during transport is correct, but the option does not specify room
pressure and is less complete than C.
B - Positive pressure would allow contaminants to escape; staff should use N95, not surgical mask.
D - Cohorting is not recommended; surgical masks do not protect staff from airborne TB.
Reference: Siegel, J.D. et al. (2007). Guideline for Isolation Precautions. HICPAC. Updated 2024.
Q6. A patient admitted with sepsis has a heart rate of 110 bpm, blood pressure 88/50 mmHg, and
urine output 0.3 mL/kg/hr over 2 hours. After fluid resuscitation, which finding indicates the need
for further assessment and possible vasopressor therapy?
A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains <65 mmHg despite adequate fluids
B. Central venous pressure (CVP) rises to 12 mmHg
C. Lactate level decreases from 4.0 to 2.5 mmol/L
D. Urine output increases to 0.8 mL/kg/hr
Correct Answer: A. Mean arterial pressure (MAP) remains <65 mmHg despite adequate fluids
Rationale: In sepsis, a MAP <65 mmHg after adequate fluid resuscitation indicates vasopressor need per
surviving sepsis guidelines. Rising CVP (B) may suggest fluid overload. Decreasing lactate (C) and
increasing urine output (D) are positive signs, not indications for vasopressors.
Why Wrong:
B - CVP 12 mmHg is within normal range and does not indicate hypoperfusion requiring
vasopressors.
C - Declining lactate indicates improving tissue perfusion, a good sign.
D - Increased urine output suggests adequate renal perfusion; no vasopressor needed.
Reference: Rhodes, A. et al. (2017). Surviving Sepsis Campaign. Intensive Care Med. 43:304-377.
Page 4
