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NUR 6001 Exam 3 – Advanced Health Assessment – (2026) Actual Questions & Answers (WPU)

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Pass NUR 6001 Exam 3 with this 2026 actual Q&A study guide for Advanced Health Assessment at WPU. Covers neuro, cardio, GI, MSK, and skin exams for NP students!

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NUR 6001 Exam 3 – Advanced Health
Assessment – (2026) Actual Questions &
Answers (WPU)

A 55-year-old male presents with a dark, irregularly shaped lesion on his back.
Using the ABCDE rule for melanoma screening, which of the following findings is
most concerning for malignant melanoma?
A. Asymmetry with smooth, distinct borders
B. Border irregularity with notched, uneven edges
C. Color that is uniformly light brown
D. Diameter of 3 millimeters
Answer: B. Border irregularity with notched, uneven edges
Rationale: The ABCDE rule stands for Asymmetry, Border irregularity, Color
variation, Diameter > 6mm, and Evolving. Notched, uneven, or poorly defined
borders are a hallmark of melanoma. Uniform color, small diameter, and smooth
borders are less concerning.
When assessing the gastrointestinal system, which technique is correctly
sequenced?
A. Palpation, percussion, auscultation, inspection
B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
C. Auscultation, inspection, percussion, palpation
D. Inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation
Answer: B. Inspection, auscultation, percussion, palpation
Rationale: For the abdominal assessment, the sequence is altered from the
standard approach. Inspection is always first, followed by auscultation (to ensure

,bowel sounds are not artificially altered before listening). Percussion and
palpation follow, as they can alter bowel motility.
A provider is assessing a patient’s deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) and notes a brisk,
hyperactive response with clonus. How should this be graded?
A. Grade 1+
B. Grade 2+
C. Grade 3+
D. Grade 4+
Answer: D. Grade 4+
Rationale: DTR grading is: 0 (absent), 1+ (hypoactive), 2+ (normal), 3+ (brisker
than normal, no clonus), and 4+ (hyperactive with clonus).
During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse practitioner hears a high-pitched,
blowing sound at the second right intercostal space. This is highly suggestive of:
A. Aortic stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Mitral regurgitation
D. Pulmonic stenosis
Answer: B. Aortic regurgitation
Rationale: The second right intercostal space is the aortic valve area. A high-
pitched, blowing diastolic murmur heard best with the diaphragm while the
patient leans forward is indicative of aortic regurgitation.
Which of the following findings on a neurological examination would indicate an
upper motor neuron (UMN) lesion?
A. Flaccid paralysis
B. Muscle atrophy
C. Hyperreflexia

, D. Fasciculations
Answer: C. Hyperreflexia
Rationale: Upper motor neuron lesions present with hyperreflexia, spasticity, and
a positive Babinski sign. Lower motor neuron (LMN) lesions present with flaccid
paralysis, muscle atrophy, and fasciculations.
When performing a Weber test on a patient with unilateral sensorineural hearing
loss, where will the sound lateralize?
A. Toward the impaired ear
B. Toward the unimpaired ear
C. It will be heard equally in both ears
D. It will not be heard at all
Answer: B. Toward the unimpaired ear
Rationale: In a Weber test, sensorineural hearing loss causes the sound to
lateralize to the "better" or unimpaired ear because the impaired inner
ear/cochlea cannot process the bone-conducted sound. Conductive hearing loss
causes lateralization to the impaired ear.
A 60-year-old female presents with a positive Tinel’s sign at the wrist. This finding
is most consistent with:
A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
B. Rheumatoid arthritis
C. Lateral epicondylitis
D. De Quervain’s tenosynovitis
Answer: A. Carpal tunnel syndrome
Rationale: Tinel's sign involves tapping over the median nerve at the wrist.
Reproduction of tingling or shock-like sensations in the median nerve distribution
(thumb, index, and middle fingers) is a classic sign of carpal tunnel syndrome.

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