, 2026 ATI RN Pharmacology Exam Retake 2023 with
NGN Latest Version — 70 Real Retake Exam Questions
and 100% ATI Approved Answers | Pass the RN ATI
Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2026| Grade A EXAM
COVERAGE
1. Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Safe Medication Administration
2. Cardiovascular and Renal Pharmacotherapy
3. Neuroendocrine and Endocrine Medications
4. Respiratory, Gastrointestinal, and Immune Pharmacotherapy
5. Neurological, Psychiatric, and Pain Management Medications
6. Hematological and Antineoplastic Pharmacology
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease who is
prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
A. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
C. White blood cell count of 7,000/mm³
D. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow to treat anemia associated
with chronic kidney disease, making a target hemoglobin level of 10 to 12 g/dL the indicator of
therapeutic success. Platelets, white blood cells, and potassium do not evaluate erythropoietin
efficacy.
,2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of
the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to adjust the infusion rate?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Intravenous heparin therapy is monitored using the Activated Partial Thromboplastin
Time (aPTT), typically targeting 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value. PT and INR are
utilized to monitor oral warfarin therapy.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
assessments is priority prior to administering the dose?
A. Assess blood pressure for hypertension.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for one full minute.
C. Check serum sodium levels.
D. Inspect peripheral extremities for dependent edema.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: The nurse must check the apical pulse for a full minute prior to administering digoxin
and hold the medication if the rate is below 60/min in adults to prevent severe bradycardia and
toxicity.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the client be instructed to avoid?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Docusate sodium
D. Diphenhydramine
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause gastric mucosal irritation,
significantly increasing the risk of serious bleeding when taken concurrently with warfarin.
Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe to a client
with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inject air into the NPH vial first, then air into the regular insulin vial.
B. Withdraw the regular insulin first before drawing up the NPH insulin.
C. Mix the insulin solutions vigorously by shaking the syringe.
D. Store the mixed syringe at room temperature for up to one week.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: When mixing regular and NPH insulin, the nurse must draw up the regular (clear)
insulin first to prevent contaminating the regular vial with NPH (cloudy) insulin. Air is injected
into NPH first, then regular, but regular is withdrawn first ("clear before cloudy").
6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who develops flushing,
erythema, and pruritus of the neck, face, and upper torso during the infusion. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an IV bolus of diphenhydramine immediately.
B. Slow the rate of the vancomycin infusion.
C. Discontinue the intravenous line permanently.
D. Document the finding as a normal expected side effect.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction caused by rapid administration of
vancomycin, resulting in histamine release. Slowing the infusion rate and administering an
antihistamine typically resolves the reaction.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia.
Which of the following findings indicates toxicity and requires immediate cessation of the
infusion?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hour
NGN Latest Version — 70 Real Retake Exam Questions
and 100% ATI Approved Answers | Pass the RN ATI
Pharmacology Proctored Exam 2026| Grade A EXAM
COVERAGE
1. Pharmacokinetics, Pharmacodynamics, and Safe Medication Administration
2. Cardiovascular and Renal Pharmacotherapy
3. Neuroendocrine and Endocrine Medications
4. Respiratory, Gastrointestinal, and Immune Pharmacotherapy
5. Neurological, Psychiatric, and Pain Management Medications
6. Hematological and Antineoplastic Pharmacology
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with chronic kidney disease who is
prescribed epoetin alfa. Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
A. Platelet count of 250,000/mm³
B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
C. White blood cell count of 7,000/mm³
D. Serum potassium level of 4.2 mEq/L
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Epoetin alfa stimulates erythropoiesis in the bone marrow to treat anemia associated
with chronic kidney disease, making a target hemoglobin level of 10 to 12 g/dL the indicator of
therapeutic success. Platelets, white blood cells, and potassium do not evaluate erythropoietin
efficacy.
,2. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous heparin for a deep vein thrombosis. Which of
the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to adjust the infusion rate?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
D. Bleeding time
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Intravenous heparin therapy is monitored using the Activated Partial Thromboplastin
Time (aPTT), typically targeting 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value. PT and INR are
utilized to monitor oral warfarin therapy.
3. A nurse is administering digoxin to a client with heart failure. Which of the following
assessments is priority prior to administering the dose?
A. Assess blood pressure for hypertension.
B. Auscultate the apical pulse for one full minute.
C. Check serum sodium levels.
D. Inspect peripheral extremities for dependent edema.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: The nurse must check the apical pulse for a full minute prior to administering digoxin
and hold the medication if the rate is below 60/min in adults to prevent severe bradycardia and
toxicity.
4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription for warfarin.
Which of the following over-the-counter medications should the client be instructed to avoid?
A. Acetaminophen
B. Aspirin
C. Docusate sodium
D. Diphenhydramine
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Aspirin inhibits platelet aggregation and can cause gastric mucosal irritation,
significantly increasing the risk of serious bleeding when taken concurrently with warfarin.
Acetaminophen is the preferred analgesic.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer regular insulin and NPH insulin in the same syringe to a client
with type 1 diabetes. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A. Inject air into the NPH vial first, then air into the regular insulin vial.
B. Withdraw the regular insulin first before drawing up the NPH insulin.
C. Mix the insulin solutions vigorously by shaking the syringe.
D. Store the mixed syringe at room temperature for up to one week.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: When mixing regular and NPH insulin, the nurse must draw up the regular (clear)
insulin first to prevent contaminating the regular vial with NPH (cloudy) insulin. Air is injected
into NPH first, then regular, but regular is withdrawn first ("clear before cloudy").
6. A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin who develops flushing,
erythema, and pruritus of the neck, face, and upper torso during the infusion. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Administer an IV bolus of diphenhydramine immediately.
B. Slow the rate of the vancomycin infusion.
C. Discontinue the intravenous line permanently.
D. Document the finding as a normal expected side effect.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Red man syndrome is an infusion-related reaction caused by rapid administration of
vancomycin, resulting in histamine release. Slowing the infusion rate and administering an
antihistamine typically resolves the reaction.
7. A nurse is monitoring a client receiving intravenous magnesium sulfate for severe preeclampsia.
Which of the following findings indicates toxicity and requires immediate cessation of the
infusion?
A. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
B. Urine output of 40 mL/hour
