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Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace Exams Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!

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Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace Exams Includes Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!! A patient with chronic renal failure asks the nurse why he is anemic. The nurse explains that anemia accompanies chronic renal failure secondary to: A. blood loss via the urine B. renal insensitivity to vitamin A (retinol) C. inadequate production of erythropoietin D. inadequate retention of serum iron - Correct Answer: C. inadequate production of erythropoietin The kidney is sensitive to oxygen saturation, and secretes erythropoietin as needed to signal the bone marrow to make more RBC's. When the kidneys fail, erythropoietin reduces and eventually stops being produced, causing anemia. Functions of kidney include: A. formation of urine B. regulation of body water and electrolytes C. acid-base balance D. all of the above - Correct Answer: D. all of the above the kidney regulates many hormonal and electrolyte functions. the major functions are: formation of urine, regulation of body water and electrolytes, acid-base balabce, production of erythropoietin, and production of renin Renal regulation of homeostasis includes: A. excretion of metabolic waste B. promotion of perfusion C. secretion of anti-diuretic hormone D. absorption of vancomycin - Correct Answer: A. excretion of metabolic waste one of the major functions of the kidney is to remove waste products. perfusion is supported by cardiac function and volume status, secretion of ADH is from the pituitary, and absorption of vancomycin occurs at the tissue level- vancomycin is cleared via the kidney. The three processes of urine formation include: A. glomerular filtration, tubular filtration, and tubular secretion B. glomerular filteration, tubular reabsorption, and tubular secretion. C. glomerular filtration, water reabsorption, excretion of sodium D. glomerular filtration, water secretion,and sodium secretion. - Correct Answer: The formation of the urine begins with glomerular filtration then the tubules reabsorb or secrete electrolytes and particles. NB: the tubules do not filtrate; sodium is regulated by multiple processes and is not a major process of the kidney funtion. water reabsorption is a function of tubular reabsorption or secretion. The glomerular filtration rate (GFR): A. equals about 180 L/day B. equals about 125 mL/ minute C. Is often calculated by pharmacy and intensivists for drug administration D. All of the above - Correct Answer: D. All of the above GFR, a good indication of renal function, equals about 180 L/day or about 125 mL/min, and is a calculated number Renal assessment includes: A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) B. Creatinine C. Urine output for 24 hours D. All of the above - Correct Answer: D. All of the above The best measure of current renal function is to measure 24-hour-urine formation, GFR, and creatinine. These three focus on the kidney's abililty to filter, absorb and secret. Blood-urea-nitrogen (BUN) is a reflection of: A. Hydration, catabolic state and presence of blood in the gut B. Hydration, liver function and renal clearance C. Renal absorption of sodium, total parenteral nutrition (TPN) and disseminated intravasular coagulation (DIC) D. Renal excretion of potassium, liver failure and fluid overload - Correct Answer: A. Hydration, catabolic state and presence of blood in the gut - BUN is refection of the intravascular volume status; if intravascularly dehydrated; the BUN will rise without creatinine elevation. - If the patient has not had enough protein in their diet the body will break down muscle to make protein and that will release nitrogen into the blood, elevating BUN. - Free blood in the gut (GI bleed) will also break down to protein and elevate the BUN. The RIFLE criteria includes the risk of renal injury. List the criteria for determining renal risk, injury and failure: A. Creatinine, urine output and GFR B. Creatinine, BP and HR C. BP, pulse pressure and GFR D. BP, GFR and urine output - Correct Answer: A. creatinine, urine output and GFR Creatinine, urine output and GFR are the major criteria for the assessment of current renal function according to the RIFLE study. Looking at creatinine alone does not reflect the current status of renal function.

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Institution
Certified Dialysis Nurse
Course
Certified Dialysis Nurse

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Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams Includes
Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!


A patient with chronic renal failure asks the nurse why he C. inadequate production of erythropoietin
is anemic. The nurse explains that anemia accompanies
chronic renal failure secondary to: The kidney is sensitive to oxygen saturation, and secretes
A. blood loss via the urine erythropoietin as needed to signal the bone marrow to
B. renal insensitivity to vitamin A (retinol) make more RBC's. When the kidneys fail, erythropoietin
C. inadequate production of erythropoietin reduces and eventually stops being produced, causing
D. inadequate retention of serum iron anemia.
Functions of kidney include: D. all of the above
A. formation of urine the kidney regulates many hormonal and electrolyte func-
B. regulation of body water and electrolytes tions. the major functions are: formation of urine, regu-
C. acid-base balance lation of body water and electrolytes, acid-base balabce,
D. all of the above production of erythropoietin, and production of renin
A. excretion of metabolic waste
Renal regulation of homeostasis includes:
one of the major functions of the kidney is to remove waste
A. excretion of metabolic waste
products. perfusion is supported by cardiac function and
B. promotion of perfusion
volume status, secretion of ADH is from the pituitary, and
C. secretion of anti-diuretic hormone
absorption of vancomycin occurs at the tissue level- van-
D. absorption of vancomycin
comycin is cleared via the kidney.
The three processes of urine formation include:
The formation of the urine begins with glomerular filtra-
A. glomerular filtration, tubular filtration, and tubular se-
tion- then the tubules reabsorb or secrete electrolytes and
cretion
particles.
B. glomerular filteration, tubular reabsorption, and tubu-
lar secretion.
NB: the tubules do not filtrate; sodium is regulated by
C. glomerular filtration, water reabsorption, excretion of
multiple processes and is not a major process of the
sodium
kidney funtion. water reabsorption is a function of tubular
D. glomerular filtration, water secretion,and sodium se-
reabsorption or secretion.
cretion.

The glomerular filtration rate (GFR): D. All of the above
A. equals about 180 L/day GFR, a good indication of renal function, equals about 180
B. equals about 125 mL/ minute L/day or about 125 mL/min, and is a calculated number


, Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams Includes
Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!


C. Is often calculated by pharmacy and intensivists for
by critical care specialists to dose drugs. GFR is excellent
drug administration
measure of current renal function.
D. All of the above
Renal assessment includes: D. All of the above
A. Glomerular filtration rate (GFR) The best measure of current renal function is to measure
B. Creatinine 24-hour-urine formation, GFR, and creatinine. These three
C. Urine output for 24 hours focus on the kidney's abililty to filter, absorb and secret.
D. All of the above This information is found in the RIFLE study.
A. Hydration, catabolic state and presence of blood in the
Blood-urea-nitrogen (BUN) is a reflection of: gut
A. Hydration, catabolic state and presence of blood in the - BUN is refection of the intravascular volume status; if
gut intravascularly dehydrated; the BUN will rise without cre-
B. Hydration, liver function and renal clearance atinine elevation.
C. Renal absorption of sodium, total parenteral nutrition - If the patient has not had enough protein in their diet-
(TPN) and disseminated intravasular coagulation (DIC) the body will break down muscle to make protein and that
D. Renal excretion of potassium, liver failure and fluid will release nitrogen into the blood, elevating BUN.
overload - Free blood in the gut (GI bleed) will also break down to
protein and elevate the BUN.
The RIFLE criteria includes the risk of renal injury. List the
A. creatinine, urine output and GFR
criteria for determining renal risk, injury and failure:
Creatinine, urine output and GFR are the major criteria for
A. Creatinine, urine output and GFR
the assessment of current renal function according to the
B. Creatinine, BP and HR
RIFLE study. Looking at creatinine alone does not reflect
C. BP, pulse pressure and GFR
the current status of renal function.
D. BP, GFR and urine output


Strategies to prevent acute kidney injury include: D. All of the above
A. limiting dehydration Excellent strategies for protecting renal function include:
B. limiting and correcting hypotension limiting intravascular dehydration, limiting and correct-
C. limiting exposure to nephrotoxins ing hypotension, and limiting exposure to nephrotoxins-
D. All of the above pharmokinetic therapy for pt on nephrotoxic drugs, renal



, Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams Includes
Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!


protection for those receiving contrast media would also
be included in this function
D. All of the above
Preventative measures for the onset of acute kidney injury Renal protection includes:
include: - IV hydration before administering nephrotoxins, such as
A. IV isotonic hydration before nephrotoxins are adminis- intravenous contrast dye.
tered - Use of drugs to further protect the kidney- the use of
B. Maintenance of adequate MAP N-acetylcysteine before IV contrast dye (this is an oxygen
C. Use of N-acetylcysteine for renal protection radical scavenger that protects the nephrons from injury
D. All of the above that occurs with IV contrast dye)
- Maintenance of an adequate MAP to profuse the kidney,
Prerenal failure is caused by:
D. All of the above
A. Poor cardiac output
The three main causes of prerenal failure are: poor cardiac
B. Poor volume status
function, poor volume status, and renal artery stenosis. All
C. Renal artery stenosis
three prevent blood from reaching the kidney
D. All of the above
In the oliguric phase of acute renal failure the urine out-
put: A. Is less than 400 ml/24 hours
A. Is less than 400 ml/24 hours This is the marker of oliguria to the nephrologist. If the
B. Is greater than 500 ml/24 hours urine output is less than 400 ml/24 hours, the patient is
C. Totally ceases said to be oliguric.
D. Is not measure
C. Urine output slowly increases
In the diuretic phase of renal failure:
In this phase of acute renal failure, urine output begins
A. Urine output does not change
to improve, and the chance of mortality also declines.
B. Oxygenation becomes worse
Electrolytes are still abnormal and the patient still has
C. Urine output slowly increases
metabolic acidosis. The oxygenation of the patient should
D. Electrolytes improve
improve since the patient is now eliminating extra fluid.

B. Urine output is normal
Although the pt now has normal urine output, electrolytes


, Certified Dialysis Nurse Test Review Comprehensive Resource To Help You Ace 2026-2027 Exams Includes
Frequently Tested Questions With ELABORATED 100% Correct COMPLETE SOLUTIONS
Guaranteed Pass First Attempt!! Current Update!!


In the recovery phase of acute renal failure, the: may still be abnormal and need to be corrected and mon-
A. Patient is completely well itored carefully.
B. Urine output is normal - The patient's mortality rate decreases and the BUN:cre-
C. Patient still has a mortality of over 50% atinine ratio may still be abnormal due to electrolyte dys-
D. BUN: creatinine ratio is completely normal function. The recovery phase may take 3-12 months.
Which of the following laboratory findings would be con-
gruent with metabolic alkalosis?
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 42 mmHg, serum potassium 3.0
A. pH 7.48, PaCO2 42 mmHg, serum potassium 3.0
mEq/L
mEq/L
The pH is alkalotic- 7.48
B. pH 7.40, PaCO2 40 mmHg, serum potassium 4.0
The PaCO2 is normal 42 mmHg
mEq/L
The potassium is very low- 3.0 mEq/L
C. pH 7.44, PaCO2 38 mmHg, serum potassium 6.0
A very low potassium can cause metabolic alkalosis
mEq/L
D. pH 7.30, PaCO2 44 mmHg, serum potassium 3.5 mEq
Serum sodium levels below 120 mEq/L are often associ- D. all of the above
ated with: When serum sodium levels are this low, the patient may
A. seizure activity become very symptomatic. seizure activit, diminished or
B. diminished or changes in the LOC changed LOC and behavioral changes may be related to
C. syndrome of inappropriate diuretic hormone (SIADH) SIADH (water intoxication associated with lowered sodium
D. all of the above levels)
The following drug/s may be administered to remove
D. kayexalate and sorbitol
extra potassium from the body in the patient with hyper-
These drugs increase gastric motility (cause diarrhea).
kalemia secondary to AKI?
Potassium is then evacuated from the body.
A. sodium bicarbonate
Sodium bicarbonate, glucose and insulin shift the potas-
B. calcium chloride
sium from the intravascular compartment into the body's
C. glucose and insulin infusion
cells and do not remove the potassium from the body.
D. kayexalate and sorbitol

The electrolyte abnormality that produces a U wave and
C. hypokalemia
a depressed ST-segment on the ECG and ventricular irri-
low potassium causes a ventricular irritability (VT and VF)
tability is:

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