PSY 3309 Behavioural Neuroscience Exam – Questions And
Answers | Verified And Well Detailed Answers Plus Rationales
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1. A researcher is studying the resting membrane potential of a giant axon. Which ion
distribution is primarily responsible for maintaining the interior negative charge relative to
the exterior during the resting state?
A. High concentration of sodium ions inside and high concentration of potassium ions outside
B. High concentration of potassium ions inside and high concentration of sodium ions outside
C. Equal distribution of chloride and calcium ions across the membrane
D. High concentration of organic anions outside and calcium ions inside
Correct Answer: B. High concentration of potassium ions inside and high concentration of
sodium ions outside
Rationale: The resting membrane potential is largely established by the sodium-potassium
pump and the selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions, creating a high
intracellular potassium concentration and a high extracellular sodium concentration. Option
A reverses these concentrations. Options C and D do not reflect the primary ionic gradient
responsible for the resting negative charge.
2. During an action potential, which event causes the rapid depolarization phase of the
neuronal membrane?
A. Efflux of potassium ions through voltage-gated channels
B. Influx of sodium ions through voltage-gated channels
C. Closure of sodium-potassium pumps
D. Influx of chloride ions through ligand-gated channels
Correct Answer: B. Influx of sodium ions through voltage-gated channels
Rationale: Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated sodium channels open in response to
threshold stimulation, allowing sodium ions to rush into the cell down their electrochemical
gradient. Option A describes repolarization, while options C and D do not drive the rapid
depolarization phase.
3. A patient presents with a focal neurological deficit resulting from a stroke affecting the
primary motor cortex. Which anatomical landmark separates the motor cortex from the
somatosensory cortex?
A. Lateral sulcus
B. Longitudinal fissure
C. Central sulcus
,D. Parieto-occipital sulcus
Correct Answer: C. Central sulcus
Rationale: The central sulcus is the prominent anatomical landmark that separates the frontal
lobe (containing the primary motor cortex) from the parietal lobe (containing the primary
somatosensory cortex). Option A separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal
lobes, while option B divides the two cerebral hemispheres.
4. Which neuroglial cell is primarily responsible for myelin formation in the central
nervous system?
A. Schwann cell
B. Microglia
C. Astrocyte
D. Oligodendrocyte
Correct Answer: D. Oligodendrocyte
Rationale: Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the central nervous system, whereas Schwann
cells perform this function in the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes provide metabolic
support and maintain the blood-brain barrier, and microglia act as resident immune cells.
5. A neuropharmacologist is analyzing a drug that blocks monoamine oxidase (MAO).
What is the direct net physiological effect of this inhibition on synaptic transmission?
A. Decreased synthesis of acetylcholine in the presynaptic terminal
B. Increased concentration of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and norepinephrine within the synaptic
cleft
C. Immediate degradation of postsynaptic receptor sites
D. Accelerated reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron
Correct Answer: B. Increased concentration of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and
norepinephrine within the synaptic cleft
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down monoamine
neurotransmitters. Inhibiting MAO prevents their enzymatic degradation, leaving more
neurotransmitters available in the terminal and increasing their release into the synaptic cleft.
The other options do not describe the action of MAO inhibitors.
6. Damage to Broca's area, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant
hemisphere, typically results in which clinical presentation?
A. Fluent speech with impaired comprehension and nonsensical words
B. Non-fluent, halting speech with preserved comprehension and impaired repetition
C. Complete inability to recognize familiar faces or objects
D. Inability to execute learned motor acts despite intact muscle strength
, Correct Answer: B. Non-fluent, halting speech with preserved comprehension and impaired
repetition
Rationale: Broca's aphasia is characterized by expressive difficulties resulting in non-fluent,
labored speech, whereas speech comprehension remains relatively intact. Option A describes
Wernicke's aphasia, which involves fluent speech with poor comprehension.
7. Which structure acts as the primary sensory relay station for the brain, processing and
directing information to the appropriate cortical areas?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Amygdala
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B. Thalamus
Rationale: The thalamus serves as the main relay and integration center for sensory
information (excluding olfaction) heading toward the cerebral cortex. Option A regulates
autonomic and endocrine functions, option C handles emotional processing, and option D is
critical for memory consolidation.
8. In a classical conditioning experiment, an animal learns to associate a tone with a mild
foot shock. Which brain structure is critically necessary for the acquisition and expression
of this conditioned fear response?
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Amygdala
D. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Correct Answer: C. Amygdala
Rationale: The amygdala, particularly the basolateral and central nuclei, plays a central role
in processing emotional valence and is essential for classical fear conditioning. Option A is
involved in motor learning and coordination, and option D regulates circadian rhythms.
9. A patient with a lesion in the dorsal stream of visual processing ("where" or "how"
pathway) would most likely exhibit which deficit?
A. Inability to identify faces, known as prosopagnosia
B. Difficulty perceiving color and reading text accurately
C. Inability to visually locate objects in space and guide movements toward them
D. Total loss of peripheral vision in both eyes
Correct Answer: C. Inability to visually locate objects in space and guide movements toward
them
Answers | Verified And Well Detailed Answers Plus Rationales
| Guaranteed Pass | Latest Exam Update | Exam Prep | Study
Guide | Practice Test| Download Instant Pdf
1. A researcher is studying the resting membrane potential of a giant axon. Which ion
distribution is primarily responsible for maintaining the interior negative charge relative to
the exterior during the resting state?
A. High concentration of sodium ions inside and high concentration of potassium ions outside
B. High concentration of potassium ions inside and high concentration of sodium ions outside
C. Equal distribution of chloride and calcium ions across the membrane
D. High concentration of organic anions outside and calcium ions inside
Correct Answer: B. High concentration of potassium ions inside and high concentration of
sodium ions outside
Rationale: The resting membrane potential is largely established by the sodium-potassium
pump and the selective permeability of the membrane to potassium ions, creating a high
intracellular potassium concentration and a high extracellular sodium concentration. Option
A reverses these concentrations. Options C and D do not reflect the primary ionic gradient
responsible for the resting negative charge.
2. During an action potential, which event causes the rapid depolarization phase of the
neuronal membrane?
A. Efflux of potassium ions through voltage-gated channels
B. Influx of sodium ions through voltage-gated channels
C. Closure of sodium-potassium pumps
D. Influx of chloride ions through ligand-gated channels
Correct Answer: B. Influx of sodium ions through voltage-gated channels
Rationale: Depolarization occurs when voltage-gated sodium channels open in response to
threshold stimulation, allowing sodium ions to rush into the cell down their electrochemical
gradient. Option A describes repolarization, while options C and D do not drive the rapid
depolarization phase.
3. A patient presents with a focal neurological deficit resulting from a stroke affecting the
primary motor cortex. Which anatomical landmark separates the motor cortex from the
somatosensory cortex?
A. Lateral sulcus
B. Longitudinal fissure
C. Central sulcus
,D. Parieto-occipital sulcus
Correct Answer: C. Central sulcus
Rationale: The central sulcus is the prominent anatomical landmark that separates the frontal
lobe (containing the primary motor cortex) from the parietal lobe (containing the primary
somatosensory cortex). Option A separates the temporal lobe from the frontal and parietal
lobes, while option B divides the two cerebral hemispheres.
4. Which neuroglial cell is primarily responsible for myelin formation in the central
nervous system?
A. Schwann cell
B. Microglia
C. Astrocyte
D. Oligodendrocyte
Correct Answer: D. Oligodendrocyte
Rationale: Oligodendrocytes myelinate axons in the central nervous system, whereas Schwann
cells perform this function in the peripheral nervous system. Astrocytes provide metabolic
support and maintain the blood-brain barrier, and microglia act as resident immune cells.
5. A neuropharmacologist is analyzing a drug that blocks monoamine oxidase (MAO).
What is the direct net physiological effect of this inhibition on synaptic transmission?
A. Decreased synthesis of acetylcholine in the presynaptic terminal
B. Increased concentration of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and norepinephrine within the synaptic
cleft
C. Immediate degradation of postsynaptic receptor sites
D. Accelerated reuptake of dopamine into the presynaptic neuron
Correct Answer: B. Increased concentration of neurotransmitters such as serotonin and
norepinephrine within the synaptic cleft
Rationale: Monoamine oxidase is the enzyme responsible for breaking down monoamine
neurotransmitters. Inhibiting MAO prevents their enzymatic degradation, leaving more
neurotransmitters available in the terminal and increasing their release into the synaptic cleft.
The other options do not describe the action of MAO inhibitors.
6. Damage to Broca's area, located in the inferior frontal gyrus of the dominant
hemisphere, typically results in which clinical presentation?
A. Fluent speech with impaired comprehension and nonsensical words
B. Non-fluent, halting speech with preserved comprehension and impaired repetition
C. Complete inability to recognize familiar faces or objects
D. Inability to execute learned motor acts despite intact muscle strength
, Correct Answer: B. Non-fluent, halting speech with preserved comprehension and impaired
repetition
Rationale: Broca's aphasia is characterized by expressive difficulties resulting in non-fluent,
labored speech, whereas speech comprehension remains relatively intact. Option A describes
Wernicke's aphasia, which involves fluent speech with poor comprehension.
7. Which structure acts as the primary sensory relay station for the brain, processing and
directing information to the appropriate cortical areas?
A. Hypothalamus
B. Thalamus
C. Amygdala
D. Hippocampus
Correct Answer: B. Thalamus
Rationale: The thalamus serves as the main relay and integration center for sensory
information (excluding olfaction) heading toward the cerebral cortex. Option A regulates
autonomic and endocrine functions, option C handles emotional processing, and option D is
critical for memory consolidation.
8. In a classical conditioning experiment, an animal learns to associate a tone with a mild
foot shock. Which brain structure is critically necessary for the acquisition and expression
of this conditioned fear response?
A. Cerebellum
B. Basal ganglia
C. Amygdala
D. Suprachiasmatic nucleus
Correct Answer: C. Amygdala
Rationale: The amygdala, particularly the basolateral and central nuclei, plays a central role
in processing emotional valence and is essential for classical fear conditioning. Option A is
involved in motor learning and coordination, and option D regulates circadian rhythms.
9. A patient with a lesion in the dorsal stream of visual processing ("where" or "how"
pathway) would most likely exhibit which deficit?
A. Inability to identify faces, known as prosopagnosia
B. Difficulty perceiving color and reading text accurately
C. Inability to visually locate objects in space and guide movements toward them
D. Total loss of peripheral vision in both eyes
Correct Answer: C. Inability to visually locate objects in space and guide movements toward
them
