Galen College of Nursing NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exams 1–4 (All-in-One PDF) | Questions & Answers | Latest Summer 2026–2027.

NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exams 1–4 Complete Review (All in 1 PDF) | Galen College | Summer 2026–2027 | Exam NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 1| Questions and Answers | latest Summer – Galen. 1. Which phase of pharmacokinetics involves the movement of a drug from the GI tract into the vascular system? o A. Distribution o B. Metabolism o C. Absorption o D. Excretion o 2. Which organ is the primary site for drug metabolism? o A. Kidneys o B. Lungs o C. Liver o D. Spleen o 3. What is the normal laboratory range for serum Creatinine? o A. 0.1 - 0.5 mg/dL o B. 0.5 - 1.2 mg/dL o C. 5.0 - 10.0 mg/dL o D. 10 - 20 mg/dL o 4. Which laboratory value is the best indicator of the amount of urea nitrogen in the blood, reflecting kidney function? o A. Creatinine o B. GFR o C. ALT o D. BUN o 5. What is the normal range for Blood Urea Nitrogen (BUN)? o A. 0.5 - 1.2 mg/dL o B. 5 - 10 mg/dL o C. 10 - 20 mg/dL o D. 20 - 40 mg/dL o 6. The "First Pass Effect" primarily impacts the bioavailability of drugs administered through which route? o A. Intravenous o B. Oral o C. Subcutaneous o D. Intramuscular o 7. Which term describes the amount of time required for the drug concentration in the body to be reduced by 50%? o A. Bioavailability o B. Loading dose o C. Half-life o D. Peak level o 8. If two highly protein-bound drugs are administered simultaneously, what is the risk to the patient? o A. Decreased drug effectiveness o B. Increased drug excretion o C. Toxicity due to increased free drug in the system o D. Improved therapeutic index o 9. When is the most appropriate time to draw a "trough" level for a medication? o A. 30 minutes after an IV dose o B. Mid-way through the dosing schedule o C. Immediately before the next scheduled dose o D. 60 minutes after an oral dose o 10. Peak drug levels for a medication administered intravenously should be drawn at what time? o A. 10 minutes after administration o B. 30–60 minutes after administration o C. 2 hours after administration o D. Just before the next dose o 11. Which of the following medications has a narrow therapeutic range and requires close monitoring? o A. Acetaminophen o B. Phenytoin o C. Ibuprofen o D. Amoxicillin o 12. What is the specific antagonist used to reverse the effects of a benzodiazepine overdose? o A. Naloxone o B. Acetylcysteine o C. Vitamin K o D. Flumazenil o 13. Which substance serves as the antagonist for Warfarin? o A. Protamine Sulfate o B. Vitamin K o C. Flumazenil o D. Naloxone o 14. Which medication is the antagonist for opioid (opiate) drugs? o A. Naloxone o B. Vitamin K o C. Acetylcysteine o D. Protamine Sulfate o 15. What is the antidote for an overdose of Acetaminophen? o A. Naloxone o B. Flumazenil o C. Acetylcysteine o D. Vitamin K o 16. Red Man Syndrome is a potential adverse reaction associated with the rapid infusion of which drug? o A. Morphine o B. Vancomycin o C. Phenytoin o D. Haloperidol o 17. Polypharmacy in geriatric patients is generally defined as the use of more than how many drugs? o A. 2 o B. 3 o C. 5 o D. 10 o 18. Why are geriatric patients at an increased risk of toxicity for lipid-soluble drugs? o A. They have less body fat. o B. They have increased available lipids, causing the drug to stay in the system longer. o C. Their liver enzymes are hyperactive. o D. They have increased total body water. o 19. Which of the following is classified as a "positive" symptom of psychosis? o A. Social withdrawal o B. Hallucinations o C. Self-care deficit o D. Anhedonia o 20. What is a primary difference between typical and atypical antipsychotics? o A. Typical antipsychotics are newer and more expensive. o B. Atypical antipsychotics have fewer side effects but are more expensive. o C. Typical antipsychotics decrease serotonin. o D. Atypical antipsychotics have been in use longer. o 21. What is the primary mechanism of action for Haloperidol (Haldol)? o A. Blocks serotonin receptors o B. Enhances GABA o C. Blocks dopamine receptors o D. Stimulates acetylcholine o 22. A patient on antipsychotics with muscle rigidity, hyperthermia, and autonomic instability is likely experiencing: o A. Extrapyramidal Syndrome (EPS) o B. Serotonin Syndrome o C. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) o D. Blood dyscrasias o 23. Stooped posture, shuffling gait, and pill-rolling hand motions are symptoms of: o A. Acute Dystonia o B. Extrapyramidal Syndrome (EPS) o C. Reye's Syndrome o D. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o 24. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is primarily used to treat which conditions? o A. Psychosis and Tourette's o B. ADHD and narcolepsy o C. Bipolar disorder and depression o D. Seizures and status epilepticus o 25. Which of the following is a contraindication for the use of Methylphenidate? o A. Hypotension o B. Cardiac dysrhythmias o C. Hypothyroidism o D. Excessive sleepiness o 26. What is the chief inhibitory neurotransmitter for the central nervous system? o A. Glutamate o B. Dopamine o C. Acetylcholine o D. GABA o 27. What is a critical education point for female patients taking antiseizure medications? o A. Oral birth control is the most effective contraceptive method. o B. A second form of contraceptive is required due to teratogenic effects. o C. Driving is encouraged to maintain independence. o D. The drugs should only be taken when a seizure is felt. o 28. A deficiency of which nutrient during pregnancy in women taking antiseizure drugs can cause neural tube defects? o A. Vitamin K o B. Calcium o C. Folic Acid o D. Vitamin D o 29. Which medication is the first-line treatment for status epilepticus and must be given IV? o A. Phenytoin o B. Valproic Acid o C. Diazepam (Benzodiazepine) o D. Phenobarbital o 30. What is the therapeutic serum level for Phenytoin (Dilantin)? o A. 0.5 - 1.2 mcg/mL o B. 5 - 10 mcg/mL o C. 10 - 20 mcg/mL o D. 20 - 40 mcg/mL o 31. Which side effect of Phenytoin (Dilantin) requires the patient to maintain frequent oral care? o A. Oral thrush o B. Gingival hyperplasia o C. Metallic taste o D. Dry mouth o 32. Which antiseizure drug is known to be hepatotoxic and requires monitoring of liver enzymes? o A. Gabapentin o B. Valproic Acid o C. Ethosuximide o D. Phenobarbital o 33. What is the maximum recommended daily dose of Acetaminophen for a healthy adult? o A. 2g o B. 3g o C. 4g o D. 6g o 34. Which laboratory tests should be monitored for a patient taking large or frequent doses of Acetaminophen? o A. BUN and Creatinine o B. AST and ALT (LFTs) o C. CBC and Electrolytes o D. Amylase and Lipase o 35. What are common side effects of opioid analgesics like Morphine? o A. Diarrhea and urinary frequency o B. Hypertension and agitation o C. Constipation and urinary retention o D. Tinnitus and hearing loss o 36. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is indicated for the acute treatment of: o A. Chronic back pain o B. Migraine and cluster headaches o C. Arthritis inflammation o D. Status epilepticus o 37. Which enzyme is responsible for protecting the stomach lining and regulating platelets? o A. COX-1 o B. COX-2 o C. Monoamine oxidase o D. Acetylcholinesterase o 38. Why should Aspirin be avoided in children and teenagers with viral illnesses? o A. Risk of Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o B. Risk of Reye’s Syndrome o C. Risk of renal failure o D. Risk of hepatoxicity o 39. What is a common sign of Aspirin toxicity (salicylism)? o A. Constipation o B. Hypertension o C. Tinnitus (ringing in the ears) o D. Weight gain o 40. Which group of herbal supplements ("The 4 G's") increases the risk of bleeding when taken with NSAIDs? o A. Ginger, Goldenseal, Garlic, Ginkgo o B. Garlic, Ginseng, Ginkgo Biloba, Green Tea o C. Ginseng, Green Tea, Ginger, Guarana o D. Garlic, Ginkgo Biloba, Goldenseal, Green Tea o 41. Which NSAID is a selective COX-2 inhibitor, offering less risk for GI ulceration? o A. Ibuprofen o B. Aspirin o C. Celecoxib o D. Naproxen o 42. Gout is caused by a defect in the metabolism of which substance? o A. Glucose o B. Purine o C. Tyramine o D. Sodium o 43. Which medication is used for the maintenance and prevention of gout attacks? o A. Colchicine o B. Allopurinol o C. Morphine o D. Ibuprofen o 44. What yearly exam is essential for a patient on chronic Allopurinol therapy? o A. Dental exam o B. Eye exam o C. Hearing test o D. Skin check o 45. What life-threatening syndrome can occur if an SSRI is mixed with St. John’s Wort? o A. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome o B. Serotonin Syndrome o C. Reye's Syndrome o D. Metabolic Syndrome o 46. Patients taking Monoamine Oxidase Inhibitors (MAOIs) must avoid foods high in: o A. Gluten o B. Tyramine o C. Vitamin K o D. Folic Acid o 47. Mixing MAOIs with tyramine-containing foods can lead to which fatal reaction? o A. Liver failure o B. Hypertensive crisis o C. Respiratory depression o D. Hypotension o 48. Tricyclic Antidepressants (TCAs) are associated with which serious adverse reaction? o A. Renal failure o B. Cardiotoxicity (dysrhythmias) o C. Hyperglycemia o D. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o 49. What is the therapeutic serum range for Lithium? o A. 0.1 - 0.5 mEq/L o B. 0.5 - 1.2 mEq/L o C. 1.5 - 2.5 mEq/L o D. 5.0 - 10.0 mEq/L o 50. Signs of Lithium toxicity include which of the following? o A. Constipation and hypertension o B. Ataxia, severe diarrhea, and blurred vision o C. Increased energy and appetite o D. Tachycardia and flushing o NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 2| Questions and Answers | latest Summer – Galen. 1. Which neurotransmitter is primarily associated with the parasympathetic nervous system and helps regulate cardiac contractions and peristalsis? o A. Dopamine o B. Norepinephrine o C. Acetylcholine o D. Serotonin o 2. In Alzheimer’s disease, what is the primary pathophysiology regarding neurotransmitters? o A. Excessive dopamine production o B. Destruction of too many acetylcholine (Ach) neurons o C. A lack of norepinephrine in the brain o D. Overproduction of GABA o 3. Which enzyme is responsible for the breakdown of acetylcholine in the synaptic cleft? o A. Monoamine oxidase o B. Acetylcholinesterase o C. HMG-CoA reductase o D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme o 4. What is the action of Rivastigmine in treating Alzheimer’s disease? o A. It blocks dopamine receptors. o B. It increases acetylcholine by inhibiting acetylcholinesterase. o C. It stimulates the sympathetic nervous system. o D. It decreases cerebral blood flow. o 5. A patient taking Rivastigmine should be monitored for which common side effect? o A. Hypertension o B. Tachycardia o C. Orthostatic hypotension o D. Dry mouth o 6. Which of the following is an absolute contraindication for Rivastigmine? o A. Diabetes o B. Liver or renal disease o C. Chronic back pain o D. Hyperthyroidism o 7. Parkinson’s disease is characterized by an imbalance of which two neurotransmitters? o A. Too much serotonin, not enough GABA o B. Too much acetylcholine, not enough dopamine o C. Too much dopamine, not enough acetylcholine o D. Too much norepinephrine, not enough serotonin o 8. What is the specific role of Carbidopa in the combination medication Carbidopa-Levodopa? o A. It converts directly into dopamine in the brain. o B. It blocks the peripheral conversion of levodopa so more can reach the brain. o C. It acts as an anticholinergic to dry secretions. o D. It stimulates dopamine receptors in the gut. o 9. Patients taking Carbidopa-Levodopa should be educated to avoid which type of food, as it decreases drug absorption? o A. Leafy green vegetables o B. High protein foods o C. Citrus fruits o D. Whole grains o 10. Carbidopa-Levodopa is contraindicated in patients with which eye condition? o A. Cataracts o B. Macular degeneration o C. Narrow-angle glaucoma o D. Retinopathy o 11. Tolcapone, a COMT inhibitor, is always administered with which other drug? o A. Rivastigmine o B. Levodopa o C. Pyridostigmine o D. Heparin o 12. Which laboratory tests must be monitored for a patient on Tolcapone due to the risk of hepatotoxicity? o A. BUN and Creatinine o B. AST, ALT, and Bilirubin o C. PT and INR o D. HbA1c o 13. A patient on Tolcapone develops a high fever and muscle rigidity. The nurse suspects which life-threatening condition? o A. Serotonin Syndrome o B. Red Man Syndrome o C. Neuroleptic Malignant Syndrome (NMS) o D. Reye’s Syndrome o 14. What is the maximum recommended duration for taking Cyclobenzaprine (Flexaril)? o A. 1 week o B. 3 weeks o C. 3 months o D. 1 year o 15. Cyclobenzaprine is contraindicated in patients with which condition due to its anticholinergic effects? o A. Asthma o B. Glaucoma o C. Hypertension o D. Diarrhea o 16. Which autoimmune disorder is characterized by a lack of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular junction (NMJ) leading to muscle weakness? o A. Parkinson’s Disease o B. Alzheimer’s Disease o C. Myasthenia Gravis o D. Multiple Sclerosis o 17. How does Pyridostigmine help patients with Myasthenia Gravis? o A. It destroys acetylcholine receptors. o B. It inhibits acetylcholinesterase, allowing acetylcholine to accumulate. o C. It acts as a selective beta-2 agonist. o D. It blocks the conversion of dopamine. o 18. What is the primary sign of an overdose of Pyridostigmine? o A. Dry mouth and constipation o B. Cholinergic crisis (everything is wet and secreting) o C. Hypertensive crisis o D. Seizures o 19. What is the antidote for a cholinergic crisis caused by Pyridostigmine? o A. Naloxone o B. Vitamin K o C. Atropine o D. Protamine sulfate o 20. Which laboratory test is used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of Heparin therapy? o A. PT/INR o B. APTT/PTT o C. AST/ALT o D. CBC o 21. What is the specific antidote for Heparin? o A. Vitamin K o B. Protamine sulfate o C. Flumazenil o D. Glucagon o 22. Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of which vitamin? o A. Vitamin C o B. Vitamin D o C. Vitamin K o D. Vitamin B12 o 23. What is the therapeutic INR range for a patient taking Warfarin for stroke prevention? o A. 0.5 - 1.2 o B. 1.5 - 2.5 o C. 2.0 - 3.0 o D. 3.5 - 4.5 o 24. Which anticoagulant is a low molecular weight heparin (LMWH) that does not require frequent laboratory monitoring? o A. Warfarin o B. Enoxaparin o C. Clopidogrel o D. Alteplase o 25. The medication Clopidogrel belongs to which class of drugs? o A. Anticoagulant o B. Thrombolytic o C. Antiplatelet o D. Cardiac glycoside o 26. What is the primary action of a thrombolytic medication like Alteplase (TPA)? o A. Prevents platelets from sticking together. o B. Prevents new clots from forming. o C. Disintegrates or dissolves existing clots. o D. Increases the production of Vitamin K. o 27. What is the critical time window for administering TPA following the onset of an ischemic stroke? o A. 1 hour o B. 4 ½ hours o C. 12 hours o D. 24 hours o 28. Which lipoprotein is referred to as "good" cholesterol because it removes cholesterol from the blood? o A. LDL o B. VLDL o C. HDL o D. Triglycerides o 29. What is the mechanism of action for "Statins" (HMG CoA reductase inhibitors)? o A. They bind to bile acids in the gut. o B. They inhibit an enzyme in cholesterol biosynthesis to lower LDL. o C. They stimulate the liver to produce more HDL. o D. They block the absorption of fat in the small intestine. o 30. Which serious adverse effect of statins involves the breakdown of skeletal muscle? o A. Gingival hyperplasia o B. Rhabdomyolysis o C. Pulmonary fibrosis o D. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o 31. When should a patient be instructed to take their statin medication for maximum effectiveness? o A. In the morning with breakfast. o B. Mid-day with lunch. o C. At night before bed. o D. Only when they eat a high-fat meal. o 32. Cilostazol is a peripheral vasodilator primarily used to treat which symptom? o A. Chest pain o B. Intermittent claudication o C. Atrial fibrillation o D. Hypertension o 33. A medication that increases the strength of heart contractions is said to have what effect? o A. Positive chronotropic o B. Positive inotropic o C. Negative dromotropic o D. Negative inotropic o 34. A "negative chronotropic" effect refers to which physiological change? o A. Increased heart rate o B. Decreased heart rate o C. Increased conduction speed o D. Decreased blood pressure o 35. What does the term "preload" refer to in cardiac physiology? o A. The force exerted by the left ventricle during contraction. o B. The stretching of the ventricles as they fill with blood. o C. The resistance the heart must pump against. o D. The total volume of blood in the body. o 36. Digoxin acts on the heart with which specific combination of effects? o A. Positive inotropic, positive chronotropic o B. Positive inotropic, negative chronotropic o C. Negative inotropic, positive chronotropic o D. Negative inotropic, negative dromotropic o 37. What is the therapeutic serum level for Digoxin? o A. 0.1 - 0.5 ng/mL o B. 0.5 - 2.0 ng/mL o C. 2.5 - 5.0 ng/mL o D. 10 - 20 ng/mL o 38. Which visual disturbance is a classic sign of Digoxin toxicity? o A. Red spots in the vision o B. Yellow or green halos around lights o C. Loss of peripheral vision o D. Photophobia o 39. Before administering Digoxin, the nurse must assess the apical pulse for 1 minute and withhold the dose if the pulse is: o A. Greater than 100 bpm o B. Less than 60 bpm o C. Irregular o D. Less than 80 bpm o 40. Which electrolyte imbalance significantly increases the risk of Digoxin toxicity? o A. Hypernatremia o B. Hypokalemia o C. Hypercalcemia o D. Hypomagnesemia o 41. Which type of angina is unpredictable and often signifies an impending myocardial infarction? o A. Stable (Classic) angina o B. Unstable (Preinfarction) angina o C. Variant (Prinzmetal) angina o D. Chronic angina o 42. Nitroglycerin treats angina primarily by promoting which effect? o A. Vasoconstriction o B. Vasodilation o C. Increased heart rate o D. Blood clotting o 43. A patient using Nitroglycerin tablets should be warned about which common side effect? o A. Constipation o B. Hypertension o C. Headache o D. Tinnitus o 44. How should a patient store their Nitroglycerin sublingual tablets? o A. In a clear plastic pill organizer. o B. In the refrigerator. o C. In the original tightly capped brown glass bottle. o D. In a metal container in the bathroom. o 45. Beta-1 receptors are primarily located in which organ? o A. Lungs o B. GI tract o C. Heart o D. Kidneys o 46. Why are nonselective beta blockers (like Propranolol) contraindicated in patients with asthma? o A. They cause excessive bronchodilation. o B. They can cause bronchoconstriction by blocking Beta-2 receptors. o C. They increase the production of mucus. o D. They cause pulmonary edema. o 47. Amiodarone is a potassium channel blocker used to treat which condition? o A. Hypertension o B. Life-threatening ventricular dysrhythmias o C. Alzheimer’s dementia o D. High cholesterol o 48. Which unique dermatological adverse effect is associated with Amiodarone use? o A. Bright red rash o B. Blue-gray skin discoloration o C. Hives o D. Jaundice o 49. Epinephrine is a nonselective adrenergic agonist used primarily for: o A. Chronic hypertension o B. Anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest o C. Insomnia o D. Migraine headaches o 50. ACE inhibitors (ending in "-pril") work to lower blood pressure by: o A. Blocking the action of epinephrine. o B. Preventing the conversion of Angiotensin I to Angiotensin II. o C. Directly dilating the veins. o D. Increasing the excretion of potassium. o NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 3| Questions and Answers | latest Summer – Galen. 1. Which medication is considered the first-line treatment for hypertension and congestive heart failure? o A. Furosemide o B. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) o C. Spironolactone o D. Mannitol o 2. Hyperglycemia in patients taking Thiazide diuretics is often caused by which electrolyte imbalance? o A. Hypernatremia o B. Hypocalcemia o C. Hypokalemia o D. Hypermagnesemia o 3. In which part of the kidney does Furosemide (Lasix) work to inhibit the resorption of electrolytes? o A. Distal convoluted tubule o B. Proximal tubule o C. Ascending loop of Henle o D. Descending loop of Henle o 4. To prevent permanent hearing loss or tinnitus, how should Furosemide (Lasix) be administered via IV? o A. Rapid IV bolus o B. Diluted in 1000mL of NS o C. Slowly o D. Only through a central line o 5. Which allergy is a contraindication for taking Furosemide? o A. Penicillin o B. Sulfa drugs o C. Shellfish o D. Latex o 6. Tachycardia in a patient on diuretics may be an early sign of: o A. Drug toxicity o B. Hyperkalemia o C. Dehydration o D. Improved cardiac output o 7. Which medication blocks the action of aldosterone to promote sodium excretion and potassium retention? o A. Mannitol o B. HCTZ o C. Spironolactone o D. Furosemide o 8. Which food or supplement should a patient on Spironolactone avoid to prevent hyperkalemia? o A. Dairy products o B. Salt substitutes containing potassium o C. Leafy greens o D. Citrus fruits o 9. Mannitol is primarily used in critical care or emergencies to treat which condition? o A. Chronic hypertension o B. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP) o C. Hypocalcemia o D. Metabolic alkalosis o 10. What is a specific storage requirement for Mannitol to prevent crystallization? o A. Keep in direct sunlight o B. Refrigerate at all times o C. Do not refrigerate o D. Freeze until use o 11. At what time of day should a patient be instructed to take their diuretic? o A. At bedtime o B. In the morning o C. With the largest meal o D. Mid-afternoon o 12. Patients of African descent are generally less responsive to which classes of antihypertensives unless paired with a diuretic? o A. Beta-blockers and ACE inhibitors o B. ARBs and CCBs o C. Alpha-blockers and Diuretics o D. Calcium channel blockers only o 13. Which cultural group is known to be twice as sensitive to beta-blockers and may require a lower dose? o A. African Americans o B. Caucasian Americans o C. Asian Americans o D. Hispanic Americans o 14. What is a critical nursing education point for diabetic patients taking Beta-blockers? o A. The drug causes immediate hyperglycemia. o B. The drug can mask the symptoms of hypoglycemia. o C. The drug increases insulin sensitivity. o D. Beta-blockers cause sugar to spill into the urine. o 15. What is the mechanism of action for Alpha-adrenergic blockers like Prazosin? o A. Increases heart rate o B. Blocks receptors causing vasodilation o C. Inhibits the RAAS system o D. Promotes sodium retention o 16. Why can Prazosin cause peripheral edema and weight gain? o A. It causes renal failure. o B. Excessive vasodilation allows fluid to leak into surrounding tissues. o C. It stimulates the release of aldosterone. o D. It increases the patient's appetite. o 17. Which type of beta-blocker should be avoided in patients with respiratory issues like asthma or COPD? o A. Selective beta-blockers (A-M) o B. Alpha-1 blockers o C. Nonselective beta-blockers (N-Z) o D. Calcium channel blockers o 18. A nurse should withhold a beta-blocker and notify the provider if the patient’s heart rate is below: o A. 100 bpm o B. 80 bpm o C. 60 bpm o D. 70 bpm o 19. What is the mechanism of action for Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) like Amlodipine? o A. Blocks the formation of Angiotensin II o B. Promotes calcium movement into cells o C. Promotes vasodilation and decreased heart rate o D. Inhibits sodium reabsorption o 20. Which medication class is the first-line antihypertensive treatment for patients of African descent? o A. ACE inhibitors o B. Beta-blockers o C. Calcium Channel Blockers (CCBs) o D. Nonselective Beta-blockers o 21. What is a common, persistent side effect of Lisinopril (ACE inhibitor) that often leads to switching to an ARB? o A. Peripheral edema o B. Hypertension o C. Constant nonproductive cough o D. Hyperglycemia o 22. Which adverse reaction to ACE inhibitors is considered a medical emergency? o A. Dry cough o B. Angioedema o C. Tinnitus o D. Photosensitivity o 23. Angiotensin 2 receptor blockers (ARBs), such as Valsartan, work by: o A. Inhibiting the conversion of Angiotensin I to II o B. Inhibiting the binding of Angiotensin II to its receptor o C. Increasing the release of aldosterone o D. Promoting the excretion of potassium o 24. Which rare but serious complication is associated with the use of "-sartan" drugs (ARBs)? o A. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o B. Rhabdomyolysis o C. Red Man Syndrome o D. Ototoxicity o 25. Before starting an ARB, what must a nurse ensure is performed for a female patient of childbearing age? o A. Liver biopsy o B. Hearing test o C. Pregnancy test o D. Vision exam o 26. What is considered the "cardinal sign" of a tuberculosis infection? o A. Chest pain o B. Bloody sputum o C. Drenching night sweats o D. High fever in the morning o 27. Which antitubercular medication is known to cause orange/red secretions in sweat and tears? o A. Isoniazid o B. Ethambutol o C. Rifampin o D. Pyrazinamide o 28. What should a patient on Rifampin be told regarding their vision care? o A. Red secretions can stain contact lenses permanently. o B. The drug causes permanent blindness. o C. It causes pupil dilation. o D. No eye protection is needed in the sun. o 29. Isoniazid (INH) can cause peripheral neuropathy due to a deficiency of which vitamin? o A. Vitamin C o B. Vitamin B12 o C. Vitamin B6 o D. Vitamin D o 30. What are the signs of hepatotoxicity that a patient on INH should report immediately? o A. Tinnitus and hearing loss o B. Bruising, dark urine, and jaundice o C. Constipation and dry mouth o D. Weight gain and edema o 31. Isoniazid (INH) is contraindicated in patients with which eye condition? o A. Cataracts o B. Glaucoma o C. Macular degeneration o D. Astigmatism o 32. Which antitubercular drug is known to raise uric acid levels? o A. Rifampin o B. Isoniazid o C. Pyrazinamide o D. Ethambutol o 33. Ethambutol (EMB) can cause damage to which cranial nerve, leading to optic neuritis? o A. CN I (Olfactory) o B. CN II (Optic) o C. CN VIII (Vestibulocochlear) o D. CN X (Vagus) o 34. Why is there a special consideration for hypertensive patients using over-the-counter cold medications? o A. Cold meds cause extreme drowsiness. o B. Cold meds can raise blood pressure. o C. Cold meds prevent the absorption of water. o D. Cold meds cause bradycardia. o 35. First-generation antihistamines like Diphenhydramine (Benadryl) often cause what effect in children? o A. Extreme sedation o B. Excitability (reciprocal effect) o C. Hypotension o D. Improved appetite o 36. Antihistamines are contraindicated in patients with narrow-angle glaucoma because they can: o A. Cause retinal detachment o B. Decrease tear production o C. Increase intraocular pressure (IOP) o D. Cause cataracts o 37. Which of the following is a second-generation, "non-sedating" antihistamine? o A. Diphenhydramine o B. Loratadine (Claritin) o C. Prazosin o D. Epinephrine o 38. Overuse of nasal decongestant sprays for more than 3 days can lead to: o A. Permanent loss of smell o B. Rebound nasal congestion o C. Excessive nosebleeds o D. Hypotension o 39. Nasal decongestants like Pseudoephedrine stimulate which receptors to cause vasoconstriction? o A. Beta-1 o B. Beta-2 o C. Alpha-adrenergic o D. Dopaminergic o 40. Decongestants can cause hyperglycemia because they act on which pathway in the liver? o A. Protein synthesis o B. Glyconeogenesis (SNS activation) o C. Bile production o D. Filtration of toxins o 41. What is a potential side effect of long-term intranasal glucocorticoid use? o A. Rebound congestion o B. Fungal infections in the nasal tract o C. Excessive hair growth in the nose o D. Hypertension o 42. Dextromethorphan should be avoided in patients with COPD because: o A. It causes extreme hypertension. o B. They need their cough reflex to clear secretions. o C. It causes rapid weight gain. o D. It increases mucus production. o 43. What is the action of Guaifenesin (Mucinex)? o A. Suppresses the cough center in the medulla o B. Thins bronchial secretions so they can be expectorated o C. Causes bronchodilation o D. Blocks histamine receptors o 44. When taking an expectorant, what should the nurse encourage the patient to increase? o A. Sodium intake o B. Exercise o C. Fluid intake o D. Protein intake o 45. What is the primary action of Albuterol? o A. Blocks histamine o B. Relaxes bronchial smooth muscle (Beta-2) o C. Decreases heart rate o D. Inhibits the cough reflex o 46. What is the "rescue" medication used for an acute asthma attack? o A. Tiotropium o B. Albuterol o C. Montelukast o D. Prednisone o 47. Overuse of an Albuterol inhaler can cause which Beta-1 response? o A. Bradycardia o B. Nervousness, tremors, and increased pulse o C. Drowsiness o D. Hypotension o 48. Tiotropium is a bronchodilator in which drug class? o A. Adrenergic agonist o B. Anticholinergic o C. Steroid o D. Leukotriene modifier o 49. What is an essential step after using a combination inhaler like Advair (Fluticasone/Salmeterol)? o A. Take a nap o B. Eat a high-protein meal o C. Rinse the mouth to prevent fungal infection o D. Exercise for 30 minutes o 50. Which medication is used for the maintenance treatment of asthma and prevention of exercise-induced bronchospasms? o A. Albuterol o B. Epinephrine o C. Montelukast (Singulair) o D. Mannitol o 51. What is a serious neuropsychiatric adverse effect associated with Montelukast? o A. Memory loss o B. Suicidal ideation o C. Insomnia only o D. Excessive laughter o 52. When should Montelukast typically be administered? o A. Early morning o B. Mid-day o C. Daily in the evening o D. Only during an asthma attack o 53. Leukotriene modifiers like Montelukast should not be taken with which common over-the-counter medications? o A. Acetaminophen o B. Aspirin or Ibuprofen o C. Vitamin C o D. Cough drops o 54. What are the three "P's" of Diabetes Mellitus symptoms? o A. Pain, Pallor, Pulselessness o B. Polyuria, Polydipsia, Polyphagia o C. Puffy eyelids, Palpitations, Perspiration o D. Proteinuria, Polycythemia, Pruritus o 55. Which type of diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance? o A. Type 1 o B. Type 2 o C. Gestational o D. Secondary o 56. Symptoms of hypoglycemia (cool, clammy, nervousness) are often referred to as: o A. Diabetic Ketoacidosis o B. "Insulin Shock" o C. Hyperglycemic crisis o D. Thyroid storm o 57. Kussmaul’s respirations (rapid, deep breathing) are a sign of: o A. Hypoglycemia o B. Diabetic Ketoacidosis (DKA) o C. Asthma attack o D. Congestive heart failure o 58. What is the onset time for rapid-acting insulin (e.g., Lispro/Humalog)? o A. 5-10 minutes o B. 15-30 minutes o C. 60 minutes o D. 2 hours o 59. Which type of insulin has no peak and a duration of 24 hours? o A. Regular o B. NPH o C. Glargine (Long-acting) o D. Aspart o 60. How long is insulin generally good for when stored outside of the refrigerator? o A. 7 days o B. 30 days o C. 90 days o D. 6 months o 61. Why should insulin injection sites be rotated? o A. To prevent infection o B. To prevent lipodystrophies o C. To speed up absorption o D. To reduce pain o 62. Glipizide (a Sulfonylurea) works by: o A. Decreasing insulin production o B. Stimulating pancreatic beta cells to increase insulin o C. Blocking glucose absorption in the gut o D. Increasing the breakdown of glycogen in the liver o 63. What is the primary action of Metformin? o A. Stimulates beta cells directly o B. Decreases hepatic production of glucose from stored glycogen o C. Increases glucose absorption in the small intestine o D. Increases the release of glucagon o 64. Metformin must be discontinued 24 hours before and 48 hours after which procedure? o A. X-ray o B. Receipt of contrast dye o C. Surgery with general anesthesia o D. Physical therapy o 65. Which lab value is a contraindication for Metformin use if it is greater than 1.4 or 1.5? o A. BUN o B. ALT o C. Creatinine o D. HbA1c o 66. What is the emergency medication used to treat insulin-induced hypoglycemia in unresponsive patients? o A. Regular insulin o B. Metformin o C. Glucagon o D. Exenatide o 67. Which hormone, secreted by the kidneys, regulates calcium levels by stimulating uptake in the GI tract? o A. Calcitonin o B. Calcitriol o C. T3 o D. Aldosterone o 68. Levothyroxine (Synthroid) is the drug of choice for treating which condition? o A. Hyperthyroidism o B. Hypothyroidism o C. Cushing’s Syndrome o D. Addison’s Disease o 69. When should a patient take Levothyroxine for optimal absorption? o A. At night with a snack o B. In the morning on an empty stomach o C. Mid-day with lunch o D. Only when feeling tired o 70. What is a life-threatening emergency caused by excessive free T3/T4? o A. Myxedema coma o B. Thyroid Storm (Thyrotoxic Crisis) o C. Hypocalcemic tetany o D. Adrenal crisis o 71. Propylthiouracil (PTU) is used to treat: o A. Hypothyroidism o B. Hyperthyroidism o C. Hypocalcemia o D. Diabetes insipidus o 72. What are the classic physical signs of Cushing’s Syndrome (Glucocorticoid hypersecretion)? o A. Bronzing of the skin o B. Buffalo hump and moon face o C. Extreme weight loss o D. Hallow cheeks and sunken eyes o 73. Prednisone can cause which side effect involving blood glucose? o A. Hypoglycemia o B. Hyperglycemia o C. No effect on glucose o D. Rapid stabilization of glucose o 74. Patients on long-term steroid therapy (like Prednisone) should be instructed to: o A. Stop the drug immediately if they feel better. o B. Avoid crowds and report signs of illness (immunosuppression). o C. Decrease their fluid intake. o D. Avoid all forms of exercise. o 75. Fludrocortisone is used as a replacement for which hormone in Addison’s Disease? o A. Insulin o B. Thyroid hormone o C. Aldosterone (Mineralocorticoid) o D. Growth hormone o NUR 210 Principles of Pharmacology Exam 4| Questions and Answers | latest Summer – Galen. 1. Which cerebral centers affect the act of vomiting? o A. Medulla and cerebellum o B. Vomiting center, chemoreceptor trigger zone (CTZ), and vestibular center o C. Frontal lobe and pituitary gland o D. Hypothalamus and thalamus o 2. Vomiting with no accompanying nausea may be indicative of: o A. Food poisoning o B. Brain damage o C. Side effects of antibiotics o D. Peptic ulcers o 3. The "BRAT" diet used to ease vomiting consists of: o A. Bananas, Raspberries, Apples, Tea o B. Bread, Apples, Rice, Toast o C. Beef, Rice, Apples, Tofu o D. Beans, Raisins, Apricots, Toast o 4. Which condition is characterized by an erosion of the mucosal lining in the esophagus, stomach, or duodenum? o A. GERD o B. Peptic ulcers o C. Diverticulitis o D. Crohn’s Disease o 5. What is the normal pH level of the stomach? o A. 1.0 - 2.0 o B. 2.0 - 5.0 o C. 5.0 - 7.0 o D. 7.35 - 7.45 o 6. Which bacterium is a major risk factor for peptic ulcers and is tested for via a breath test? o A. C. diff o B. E. coli o C. H. pylori o D. MRSA o 7. What is the main cause of Gastroesophageal Reflux Disease (GERD)? o A. Excessive fiber intake o B. Incompetent lower esophageal sphincter (cardiac sphincter) o C. High protein diet o D. Rapid gastric emptying o 8. Which lifestyle intervention is recommended for patients with GERD? o A. Lie flat immediately after eating o B. Wear tight-fitting clothing o C. Sit upright for meals o D. Eat a large meal right before bedtime o 9. Which neurotransmitter has grossly excitatory effects on movement and can trigger vomiting when its pathways are stimulated? o A. Acetylcholine o B. Serotonin o C. Dopamine o D. GABA o 10. Which neurotransmitter regulates behavior, mood, and gastrointestinal homeostasis? o A. Serotonin o B. Norepinephrine o C. Histamine o D. Glutamate o 11. What is the mechanism of action for Promethazine (Phenergan)? o A. Blocks serotonin receptors o B. Blocks histamine 1 and dopamine receptor sites in the CTZ o C. Increases gastric emptying o D. Coats the stomach lining o 12. Which of the following is an extrapyramidal symptom (EPS) associated with Promethazine? o A. Hypertension o B. Tardive dyskinesia o C. Diarrhea o D. Tachycardia o 13. Promethazine is contraindicated in patients with which condition due to its effect on dopamine pathways? o A. Diabetes o B. Glaucoma o C. Hypothyroidism o D. Hyperlipidemia o 14. What is a notable interaction when taking Promethazine? o A. It causes false pregnancy tests. o B. It increases the effect of oral contraceptives. o C. It treats glaucoma. o D. It reduces the effects of CNS depressants. o 15. What is the mechanism of action for Ondansetron (Zofran)? o A. Blocks dopamine receptors o B. Blocks serotonin receptors in the CTZ and vagal nerve terminals o C. Stimulates the CTZ o D. Increases peristalsis o 16. Unlike other antiemetics, Ondansetron (Zofran) is unique because it does not cause: o A. Headaches o B. Dizziness o C. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) o D. Fatigue o 17. Which serious cardiac adverse reaction is associated with Ondansetron? o A. Bradycardia o B. QT prolongation o C. Heart block o D. Peripheral edema o 18. What is the action of Metoclopramide (Reglan)? o A. Blocks serotonin and decreases heart rate o B. Blocks dopamine receptors in CTZ and increases gastric emptying o C. Coats the esophagus o D. Slows down peristalsis o 19. Metoclopramide is contraindicated in which of the following scenarios? o A. Motion sickness o B. GI obstruction, hemorrhage, or perforation o C. Postoperative nausea o D. GERD o 20. To assist in gastric emptying, when should Metoclopramide be administered? o A. Immediately after meals o B. Before meals o C. At bedtime only o D. 2 hours after other medications o 21. Which antiemetic should be taken 30-60 minutes prior to chemotherapy or travel? o A. Antacids o B. Sucralfate o C. Antiemetics (general recommendation) o D. Laxatives o 22. What is the mechanism of action for Diphenoxylate with atropine? o A. Increases GI motility o B. Inhibits gastric motility by slowing peristalsis o C. Neutralizes stomach acid o D. Stimulates the CTZ o 23. Which medical emergency involves a portion of the GI tract stopping movement and is a risk with long-term antidiarrheal use? o A. Red Man Syndrome o B. Paralytic ileus o C. Rhabdomyolysis o D. Serotonin Syndrome o 24. Why is Diphenoxylate with atropine contraindicated for patients with C. diff? o A. It causes hyperglycemia. o B. Diarrhea helps the organisms exit the body. o C. It increases the risk of tooth discoloration. o D. It causes the organisms to multiply faster. o 25. A patient who has recently traveled out of the country is at a higher risk of: o A. Chronic constipation o B. Infectious organisms in the GI tract o C. GERD o D. Glaucoma o 26. Which type of laxative is Metamucil? o A. Osmotic o B. Stimulant o C. Bulk-forming o D. Emollient o 27. What is the mechanism of Bisacodyl? o A. Pulls water into the colon o B. Increases peristalsis by direct effect on smooth muscle o C. Softens stool only o D. Coats the intestinal wall o 28. Which electrolyte imbalance is an adverse reaction to Bisacodyl? o A. Hypernatremia o B. Hypokalemia o C. Hypercalcemia o D. Hypomagnesemia o 29. Bisacodyl is contraindicated in which condition? o A. Motion sickness o B. Appendicitis or inflammatory GI disorders o C. Headache o D. Dry mouth o 30. To avoid inhibition of absorption, laxatives should not be taken within how many hours of another drug? o A. 1 hour o B. 4 hours o C. 6 hours o D. 12 hours o 31. What is the primary action of antacids? o A. Coat the stomach lining o B. Neutralize HCl acid and reduce pepsin activity o C. Stimulate acid production o D. Kill H. pylori o 32. Which type of antacid is most likely to cause constipation? o A. Magnesium hydroxide o B. Aluminum hydroxide o C. Calcium carbonate o D. Sodium bicarbonate o 33. Magnesium hydroxide is commonly known to cause which side effect? o A. Constipation o B. Diarrhea o C. Hypertension o D. Tinnitus o 34. When should a patient take an antacid in relation to other medications? o A. At the same time o B. 1 hour before or 2 hours after other meds o C. Only with meals o D. Right before bedtime o 35. What is the mechanism of Famotidine (Pepcid)? o A. Inhibits H+/K+ ATPase enzyme o B. Blocks H2 receptors of parietal cells to reduce gastric acid o C. Neutralizes existing acid o D. Forms a paste over the ulcer o 36. Patients taking Famotidine should be encouraged to eat a diet rich in: o A. Vitamin C o B. Vitamin B12 o C. Potassium o D. Iron o 37. Which adverse reaction to Famotidine can occur particularly in older adults? o A. Hypertension o B. Confusion o C. Excessive hair growth o D. Improved memory o 38. What is the mechanism of Pantoprazole? o A. Blocks histamine receptors o B. Inhibits the hydrogen/potassium ATPase enzyme (PPI) o C. Neutralizes pH o D. Stimulates mucus production o 39. Pantoprazole is often used in combination with antibiotics to treat: o A. C. diff o B. H. pylori o C. MRSA o D. Yeast infections o 40. How should Pantoprazole be administered for maximum effectiveness? o A. With a high-fat meal o B. On an empty stomach o C. Immediately after lunch o D. Mixed with orange juice o 41. What is the action of Sucralfate (Carafate)? o A. Neutralizes acid o B. Combines with gastric acid to form a thick paste covering the ulcer o C. Increases gastric motility o D. Decreases insulin production o 42. Which side effect is specific to Sucralfate? o A. Hypoglycemia o B. Hyperglycemia o C. Hypokalemia o D. Tinnitus o 43. Sucralfate is contraindicated in patients with: o A. Hypertension o B. Renal failure o C. Asthma o D. Glaucoma o 44. Which fungal infection is commonly known as "thrush"? o A. Tinea pedis o B. Vaginal candidiasis o C. Oral candidiasis o D. Systemic candidiasis o 45. How is Nystatin administered for oral candidiasis (thrush)? o A. Swallow immediately o B. Swish and swallow o C. Apply as a dry powder o D. IV infusion only o 46. Fluconazole is primarily used to treat: o A. Bacterial infections o B. Severe systemic fungal infections o C. Motion sickness o D. Peptic ulcers o 47. Fluconazole has a significant interaction with which medication, increasing the risk of bleeding? o A. Acetaminophen o B. Warfarin o C. Digoxin o D. Lisinopril o 48. Patients taking Fluconazole should avoid alcohol because: o A. It causes a rash. o B. Alcohol "feeds" the yeast. o C. It causes immediate renal failure. o D. It leads to extreme hypertension. o 49. Metronidazole (Flagyl) is used for which type of infections? o A. Respiratory infections o B. GI or GU infections o C. Skin infections only o D. Bone marrow infections o 50. Which side effect is common when taking Metronidazole? o A. Sweet taste o B. Metallic or bitter taste o C. Yellowing of the skin o D. Hearing loss o 51. What occurs if a patient consumes alcohol while taking Metronidazole? o A. Serotonin Syndrome o B. Disulfiram-like reaction (facial flushing, headache, sweating) o C. Immediate loss of consciousness o D. No reaction o 52. A "bacteriostatic" drug does what to bacteria? o A. Kills them immediately o B. Inhibits their growth o C. Makes them more virulent o D. Changes their DNA o 53. Broad-spectrum antibiotics are frequently used when? o A. After the culture results are known o B. Before the C&S (culture and sensitivity) results are available o C. Only for viral infections o D. For narrow, specific bacteria o 54. Which white blood cells are the most numerous (60-70%) and ingest/destroy bacteria? o A. Eosinophils o B. Neutrophils o C. Basophils o D. Lymphocytes o 55. The presence of an excessive amount of "band cells" (immature neutrophils) is known as: o A. Bandemia o B. Leukemia o C. Anemia o D. Thrombocytopenia o 56. A "left shift" in a white blood cell count indicates: o A. The infection is resolving. o B. Neutrophil destruction surpasses production. o C. The patient is having an allergic reaction. o D. A parasitic infection is present. o 57. Which type of WBC increases during an allergic or anaphylactic reaction? o A. Neutrophils o B. Basophils o C. Monocytes o D. T cells o 58. Which cells mature in the thymus? o A. B cells o B. T cells o C. Macrophages o D. Neutrophils o 59. Azithromycin belongs to which class of antibiotics? o A. Penicillins o B. Macrolides o C. Glycopeptides o D. Tetracyclines o 60. Azithromycin is often used when a patient has an allergy to: o A. Sulfa drugs o B. PCN (Penicillin) or Cephalosporins o C. NSAIDs o D. Peanuts o 61. Which cranial nerve damage leads to ototoxicity (tinnitus/hearing loss) from Azithromycin? o A. CN II o B. CN VIII o C. CN X o D. CN XII o 62. Azithromycin can decrease the effectiveness of: o A. Vitamin C o B. Oral birth control o C. Antacids o D. Insulin o 63. When should antacids be taken in relation to Azithromycin? o A. Simultaneously o B. Hold for 2 hours before and 2 hours after administration o C. 10 minutes before o D. Only at bedtime o 64. A reduction in what symptom indicates an antibiotic is working? o A. Appetite o B. Fever o C. Sleep o D. Heart rate o 65. Vancomycin is the drug of choice for treating which serious infection? o A. Common cold o B. MRSA o C. Athlete’s foot o D. GERD o 66. To prevent Red Man Syndrome, Vancomycin must be administered: o A. Rapidly via IV push o B. Slowly over 1-2 hours o C. Only as an oral tablet o D. With a high-protein meal o 67. When should a "trough" level for Vancomycin be drawn? o A. 30 minutes after the dose o B. Right before the next administration o C. Mid-way through the infusion o D. 4 hours after the dose o 68. A rash on the face, neck, back, and chest accompanied by hypotension during Vancomycin infusion is: o A. Stevens-Johnson Syndrome o B. Red Man Syndrome o C. Anaphylaxis o D. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis o 69. Vancomycin is notably toxic to which two systems? o A. Hepatic and Cardiac o B. Nephrotoxic (kidneys) and Ototoxic (ears) o C. Skin and Hair o D. Respiratory and GI o 70. Why should Vancomycin be given in a large vessel? o A. To increase absorption o B. It is caustic to veins (risk of thrombophlebitis) o C. It causes immediate vasodilation o D. To prevent it from reaching the heart too fast o 71. Doxycycline belongs to which class of antibiotics? o A. Aminoglycosides o B. Tetracyclines o C. Fluoroquinolones o D. Cephalosporins o 72. What is a specific side effect of Doxycycline that affects children under 8? o A. Hearing loss o B. Discoloration of teeth o C. Rapid hair growth o D. Increased height o 73. Which type of food/supplement inhibits the absorption of Doxycycline? o A. Citrus fruits o B. Dairy products and iron o C. Leafy greens o D. B12 vitamins o 74. Doxycycline is contraindicated in which population due to teratogenic effects? o A. Older adults o B. Pregnant women o C. Athletes o D. Men with glaucoma o 75. Gentamicin belongs to which class of antibiotics? o A. Macrolides o B. Aminoglycosides o C. Penicillins o D. Tetracyclines o 76. Gentamicin is primarily effective against which type of bacteria? o A. Gram-positive o B. Gram-negative o C. Spore-forming only o D. Fungi o 77. Which exams should be performed before a prescription of Gentamicin? o A. Dental exam o B. Hearing and eye exam o C. Liver biopsy o D. Treadmill stress test o 78. Ciprofloxacin is a member of which antibiotic class? o A. Aminoglycosides o B. Fluoroquinolones o C. Macrolides o D. Glycopeptides o 79. What is a unique and serious adverse reaction associated with Ciprofloxacin? o A. Red Man Syndrome o B. Tendon rupture o C. Gingival hyperplasia o D. Metallic taste o 80. Patients on Ciprofloxacin should avoid which substance due to a synergistic CNS effect? o A. Dairy o B. Caffeine o C. Vitamin C o D. Protein o 81. Ciprofloxacin is contraindicated in children under 14 because it can affect: o A. Hearing o B. Growth o C. Vision o D. Tooth color o 82. "Bactericidal" means the antibiotic: o A. Slows the bacteria down o B. Kills the bacteria o C. Prevents bacterial reproduction o D. Only works on viruses o 83. Amoxicillin works by: o A. Inhibiting protein synthesis o B. Inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis o C. Blocking dopamine o D. Increasing gastric acid o 84. Which side effect of Amoxicillin involves the tongue? o A. Tinnitus of the tongue o B. Glossitis (swelling of the tongue) o C. Loss of taste o D. Hair growth on the tongue o 85. Amoxicillin can cause a superinfection of which organism? o A. H. pylori o B. Candida (yeast) o C. E. coli o D. Influenza o 86. Amoxicillin should not be taken with which type of juice as it decreases its effect? o A. Apple juice o B. Acidic/Citrus juice o C. Grape juice o D. Cranberry juice o 87. Cephalosporins are categorized into how many "generations"? o A. 2 o B. 5 o C. 10 o D. 3 o 88. What is the prototype Cephalosporin mentioned in the text? o A. Amoxicillin o B. Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) o C. Gentamicin o D. Azithromycin o 89. A patient with a severe allergy to Penicillin should be monitored closely for a cross-sensitivity to: o A. Tetracyclines o B. Cephalosporins o C. Aminoglycosides o D. Macrolides o 90. If a patient on Cephalosporins develops diarrhea, the nurse should monitor: o A. Vision o B. Electrolytes o C. Hearing o D. Blood pressure only o 91. What are examples of probiotics used to prevent superinfection during antibiotic therapy? o A. Soda and juice o B. Milk, yogurt, or buttermilk o C. Coffee and tea o D. Bread and apples o 92. How should Ceftriaxone (Rocephin) be administered intravenously? o A. Rapidly over 1 minute o B. Over 30 minutes o C. Continuous infusion over 24 hours o D. Only as an IV bolus o 93. Which condition involves inflammation of the esophageal mucosa caused by acid reflux? o A. Ulcers o B. GERD o C. Thrush o D. Tendonitis o 94. Stimulation of dopamine pathways can cause which type of symptoms? o A. Anticholinergic symptoms o B. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) o C. Symptoms of hyperthyroidism o D. Respiratory alkalosis o 95. Serotonin increases which gastrointestinal functions? o A. Gastric emptying and gut motility o B. Acid production only o C. Constipation o D. Bile storage o 96. Which antiemetic is considered the "most effective" available for N/V from chemotherapy? o A. Promethazine o B. Ondansetron (Zofran) o C. Metoclopramide o D. Antacids o 97. Dystonia, akathisia, and tremors are all types of: o A. Cardiac dysrhythmias o B. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) o C. Signs of renal failure o D. Symptoms of a cold o 98. Which drug is a combination of a weak opioid and an anticholinergic? o A. Bisacodyl o B. Diphenoxylate with atropine o C. Vancomycin o D. Pantoprazole o 99. What is a "superinfection"? o A. An infection that is easily cured o B. A secondary infection that occurs when normal flora are killed by antibiotics o C. An infection caused by a virus o D. A genetic disorder o 100. The peak level for Vancomycin should be drawn at what time? * A. Immediately before the dose * B. 30 minutes after administration * C. 2 hours after the dose * D. Only once a week *