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NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I
Exam 1-3 Study Guide | 300+ Q&A with
Rationales | William Paterson
University
NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I
Comprehensive Q&A Bank (Questions 1-300)
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with a pruritic rash in the antecubital and
popliteal areas. The patient reports a history of asthma. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Psoriasis
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Tinea corporis
Answer: C) Atopic dermatitis
Rationale: Atopic dermatitis (eczema) classically presents in flexural locations such as
the antecubital and popliteal areas. The Working Party Diagnostic Criteria include
history of flexural involvement, history of asthma or allergic rhinitis, and history of
general dry skin. Contact dermatitis is typically localized to the site of exposure,
psoriasis presents with silvery scales, and tinea corporis is a fungal infection with
annular lesions.
2. Which skin condition is characterized by thick, silvery scales and
erythematous plaques commonly found on the elbows and knees?
A) Atopic dermatitis
B) Psoriasis
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C) Contact dermatitis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer: B) Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition characterized by rapid skin cell
turnover, resulting in thick, silvery scales and erythematous plaques. Common
locations include extensor surfaces such as elbows and knees. Atopic dermatitis
typically affects flexural areas, contact dermatitis is related to allergen exposure, and
seborrheic dermatitis affects sebaceous areas like the scalp.
3. A 68-year-old patient reports unilateral burning pain and a vesicular rash
that does not cross the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Herpes simplex
C) Herpes zoster
D) Impetigo
Answer: C) Herpes zoster
Rationale: Herpes zoster (shingles) results from reactivation of varicella zoster virus and
presents with a unilateral, dermatomal vesicular rash that does not cross the midline.
Prodromal symptoms include pain, burning, and itching. The incidence increases with
age, with the highest rates in patients over 60 years old.
4. A patient presents with a vesicular rash involving the ophthalmic branch of
the trigeminal nerve. What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Prescribe oral acyclovir and schedule follow-up in 2 weeks
B) Immediate ophthalmology referral
C) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
D) Recommend over-the-counter antihistamines
Answer: B) Immediate ophthalmology referral
Rationale: Zoster ophthalmicus involves the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
and can lead to serious ocular complications including corneal scarring, uveitis, and
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vision loss. This requires immediate ophthalmology referral. While antiviral therapy is
indicated, ophthalmology evaluation is the priority.
5. What is the recommended oral acyclovir dosage for treating herpes zoster in
an immunocompetent adult?
A) 400 mg five times daily for 5 days
B) 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days
C) 1000 mg twice daily for 3 days
D) 200 mg four times daily for 14 days
Answer: B) 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days
Rationale: The standard treatment for herpes zoster in immunocompetent adults is oral
acyclovir 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days. Early initiation within 72 hours of rash
onset provides optimal benefit in reducing symptom severity and duration.
6. Which skin lesion is considered premalignant and may progress to squamous
cell carcinoma?
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Actinic keratosis
C) Cherry angioma
D) Dermatofibroma
Answer: B) Actinic keratosis
Rationale: Actinic keratosis is a premalignant lesion caused by chronic sun exposure
that may progress to squamous cell carcinoma. These lesions appear as rough, scaly
patches on sun-exposed skin. Seborrheic keratosis, cherry angiomas, and
dermatofibromas are benign lesions with no malignant potential.
7. Which characteristic best describes basal cell carcinoma?
A) Crusty, non-healing lesion that bleeds easily
B) Irregularly pigmented lesion with asymmetry
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NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I
Exam 1-3 Study Guide | 300+ Q&A with
Rationales | William Paterson
University
NUR 6111 Advanced Practice Nursing I
Comprehensive Q&A Bank (Questions 1-300)
1. A 45-year-old patient presents with a pruritic rash in the antecubital and
popliteal areas. The patient reports a history of asthma. What is the most likely
diagnosis?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Psoriasis
C) Atopic dermatitis
D) Tinea corporis
Answer: C) Atopic dermatitis
Rationale: Atopic dermatitis (eczema) classically presents in flexural locations such as
the antecubital and popliteal areas. The Working Party Diagnostic Criteria include
history of flexural involvement, history of asthma or allergic rhinitis, and history of
general dry skin. Contact dermatitis is typically localized to the site of exposure,
psoriasis presents with silvery scales, and tinea corporis is a fungal infection with
annular lesions.
2. Which skin condition is characterized by thick, silvery scales and
erythematous plaques commonly found on the elbows and knees?
A) Atopic dermatitis
B) Psoriasis
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C) Contact dermatitis
D) Seborrheic dermatitis
Answer: B) Psoriasis
Rationale: Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition characterized by rapid skin cell
turnover, resulting in thick, silvery scales and erythematous plaques. Common
locations include extensor surfaces such as elbows and knees. Atopic dermatitis
typically affects flexural areas, contact dermatitis is related to allergen exposure, and
seborrheic dermatitis affects sebaceous areas like the scalp.
3. A 68-year-old patient reports unilateral burning pain and a vesicular rash
that does not cross the midline. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Contact dermatitis
B) Herpes simplex
C) Herpes zoster
D) Impetigo
Answer: C) Herpes zoster
Rationale: Herpes zoster (shingles) results from reactivation of varicella zoster virus and
presents with a unilateral, dermatomal vesicular rash that does not cross the midline.
Prodromal symptoms include pain, burning, and itching. The incidence increases with
age, with the highest rates in patients over 60 years old.
4. A patient presents with a vesicular rash involving the ophthalmic branch of
the trigeminal nerve. What is the most appropriate next step?
A) Prescribe oral acyclovir and schedule follow-up in 2 weeks
B) Immediate ophthalmology referral
C) Prescribe topical corticosteroids
D) Recommend over-the-counter antihistamines
Answer: B) Immediate ophthalmology referral
Rationale: Zoster ophthalmicus involves the ophthalmic branch of the trigeminal nerve
and can lead to serious ocular complications including corneal scarring, uveitis, and
, 4|Page
vision loss. This requires immediate ophthalmology referral. While antiviral therapy is
indicated, ophthalmology evaluation is the priority.
5. What is the recommended oral acyclovir dosage for treating herpes zoster in
an immunocompetent adult?
A) 400 mg five times daily for 5 days
B) 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days
C) 1000 mg twice daily for 3 days
D) 200 mg four times daily for 14 days
Answer: B) 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days
Rationale: The standard treatment for herpes zoster in immunocompetent adults is oral
acyclovir 800 mg five times daily for 7-10 days. Early initiation within 72 hours of rash
onset provides optimal benefit in reducing symptom severity and duration.
6. Which skin lesion is considered premalignant and may progress to squamous
cell carcinoma?
A) Seborrheic keratosis
B) Actinic keratosis
C) Cherry angioma
D) Dermatofibroma
Answer: B) Actinic keratosis
Rationale: Actinic keratosis is a premalignant lesion caused by chronic sun exposure
that may progress to squamous cell carcinoma. These lesions appear as rough, scaly
patches on sun-exposed skin. Seborrheic keratosis, cherry angiomas, and
dermatofibromas are benign lesions with no malignant potential.
7. Which characteristic best describes basal cell carcinoma?
A) Crusty, non-healing lesion that bleeds easily
B) Irregularly pigmented lesion with asymmetry
