RN ATI Capstone Proctored Comprehensive
Assessment Test Exam Study Guide &
Practice Questions with Rationales (2025–
2026) | NCLEX-Style Review
QUESTION SET (1–100)
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A) Pain at the surgical site
B) Hoarse voice
C) Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
D) Tingling around the mouth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth is a sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur if the
parathyroid glands are accidentally removed or damaged during thyroidectomy. This is
a priority finding requiring immediate intervention.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which
of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is
experiencing digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate of 60/min
B) Nausea and vomiting
,C) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
D) Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include
visual disturbances (yellow/green halos), bradycardia, and confusion.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a peak flow
meter. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding
of the teaching?
A) "I will use the peak flow meter every morning."
B) "I will check my peak flow rate after taking my rescue inhaler only."
C) "I will use my peak flow meter when I feel short of breath."
D) "I will check my peak flow rate after eating."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peak flow monitoring should be done daily, typically in the morning before
medications, to establish a personal best and monitor asthma control.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the
following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
A) Abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant
B) Rebound tenderness
C) Sudden relief of pain
D) Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden relief of pain in appendicitis may indicate perforation (rupture),
which is a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about lifestyle
modifications. Which of the following should the nurse include?
,A) Reduce sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg/day
B) Increase potassium intake by adding salt substitutes
C) Eliminate all fat from the diet
D) Engage in vigorous exercise daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The DASH diet recommends sodium intake less than 2,300 mg/day (or 1,500
mg for more significant reduction). Potassium-rich foods are encouraged, but salt
substitutes must be used cautiously with certain medications.
Question 6: A nurse is planning care for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include?
A) Encourage oral intake of clear liquids
B) Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed
C) Apply cold compresses to the abdomen
D) Position the client supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pain management with opioids is a priority in acute pancreatitis. The client is
typically kept NPO to rest the pancreas.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hyperreflexia
B) Muscle weakness
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Restlessness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.
Other signs include hyporeflexia and hypotension.
, Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a continuous positive
airway pressure (CPAP) device for obstructive sleep apnea. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A) "I should wear the CPAP device only when I feel tired."
B) "I will clean the mask and tubing weekly."
C) "I will use the device every night, even during naps."
D) "I should use distilled water in the humidifier."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Distilled water should be used in the humidifier to prevent mineral buildup
and ensure proper function.
Question 9: A nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV heparin for a pulmonary
embolism. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of therapy?
A) aPTT
B) PT/INR
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin
therapy. The therapeutic goal is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis who is taking isoniazid
(INH). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
A) "Take the medication with food."
B) "Avoid foods high in tyramine."
C) "Report any yellowing of the skin or eyes."
D) "Expect a harmless orange discoloration of urine."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity. Yellowing of the skin or eyes indicates
liver damage and should be reported immediately.
Assessment Test Exam Study Guide &
Practice Questions with Rationales (2025–
2026) | NCLEX-Style Review
QUESTION SET (1–100)
Question 1: A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postoperative following a
thyroidectomy. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
A) Pain at the surgical site
B) Hoarse voice
C) Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)
D) Tingling around the mouth
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Tingling around the mouth is a sign of hypocalcemia, which can occur if the
parathyroid glands are accidentally removed or damaged during thyroidectomy. This is
a priority finding requiring immediate intervention.
Question 2: A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which
of the following findings should indicate to the nurse that the client is
experiencing digoxin toxicity?
A) Heart rate of 60/min
B) Nausea and vomiting
,C) Blood pressure 130/80 mmHg
D) Weight gain
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Nausea and vomiting are early signs of digoxin toxicity. Other signs include
visual disturbances (yellow/green halos), bradycardia, and confusion.
Question 3: A nurse is teaching a client with asthma about using a peak flow
meter. Which of the following statements by the client indicates an understanding
of the teaching?
A) "I will use the peak flow meter every morning."
B) "I will check my peak flow rate after taking my rescue inhaler only."
C) "I will use my peak flow meter when I feel short of breath."
D) "I will check my peak flow rate after eating."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Peak flow monitoring should be done daily, typically in the morning before
medications, to establish a personal best and monitor asthma control.
Question 4: A nurse is assessing a client with suspected appendicitis. Which of the
following findings is the priority for the nurse to report?
A) Abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant
B) Rebound tenderness
C) Sudden relief of pain
D) Nausea and vomiting
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Sudden relief of pain in appendicitis may indicate perforation (rupture),
which is a medical emergency requiring immediate surgical intervention.
Question 5: A nurse is teaching a client who has hypertension about lifestyle
modifications. Which of the following should the nurse include?
,A) Reduce sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg/day
B) Increase potassium intake by adding salt substitutes
C) Eliminate all fat from the diet
D) Engage in vigorous exercise daily
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The DASH diet recommends sodium intake less than 2,300 mg/day (or 1,500
mg for more significant reduction). Potassium-rich foods are encouraged, but salt
substitutes must be used cautiously with certain medications.
Question 6: A nurse is planning care for a client with acute pancreatitis. Which of
the following interventions should the nurse include?
A) Encourage oral intake of clear liquids
B) Administer opioid analgesics as prescribed
C) Apply cold compresses to the abdomen
D) Position the client supine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Pain management with opioids is a priority in acute pancreatitis. The client is
typically kept NPO to rest the pancreas.
Question 7: A nurse is assessing a client who has hypokalemia. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Hyperreflexia
B) Muscle weakness
C) Elevated blood pressure
D) Restlessness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Hypokalemia causes muscle weakness, fatigue, and cardiac arrhythmias.
Other signs include hyporeflexia and hypotension.
, Question 8: A nurse is teaching a client about the use of a continuous positive
airway pressure (CPAP) device for obstructive sleep apnea. Which statement by
the client indicates understanding?
A) "I should wear the CPAP device only when I feel tired."
B) "I will clean the mask and tubing weekly."
C) "I will use the device every night, even during naps."
D) "I should use distilled water in the humidifier."
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Distilled water should be used in the humidifier to prevent mineral buildup
and ensure proper function.
Question 9: A nurse is monitoring a client receiving IV heparin for a pulmonary
embolism. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of therapy?
A) aPTT
B) PT/INR
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is used to monitor heparin
therapy. The therapeutic goal is 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal control value.
Question 10: A nurse is caring for a client with tuberculosis who is taking isoniazid
(INH). Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client?
A) "Take the medication with food."
B) "Avoid foods high in tyramine."
C) "Report any yellowing of the skin or eyes."
D) "Expect a harmless orange discoloration of urine."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Isoniazid can cause hepatotoxicity. Yellowing of the skin or eyes indicates
liver damage and should be reported immediately.
