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NU 192 Exam 4 V3 | NU 192 Medical Surgical Nursing II-B | NCLEX (NGN) Q&A with Rationale (NU192 Exam 4) | Galen

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NU 192 Exam 4 V3 | NU 192 Medical Surgical Nursing II-B | NCLEX (NGN) Q&A with Rationale (NU192 Exam 4) | Galen

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NU 192 Exam 4 V3 | NU 192 Medical-
Surgical Nursing II-B | NCLEX (NGN) Q&A
with Rationale (NU192 Exam 4) | Galen
1. A nurse is caring for a client with Syndrome of Inappropriate Antidiuretic Hormone

(SIADH). Which laboratory finding is the nurse most likely to observe?

A. Urine specific gravity of 1.002


B. Serum osmolality of 310 mOsm/kg


C. Serum sodium of 120 mEq/L


D. Hematocrit of 52%


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: SIADH involves excessive ADH secretion, leading to significant water

retention and dilutional hyponatremia. A serum sodium of 120 mEq/L reflects this

dilutional effect. The nurse should also expect decreased serum osmolality and increased

urine specific gravity due to concentrated urine.


2. A client is receiving internal radiation (brachytherapy) for cervical cancer. Which safety

precautions should the nurse implement? Select all that apply.

A. Assign the client to a private room


B. Wear a lead apron when providing direct care


C. Limit visitor time to 30 minutes per day

,D. Maintain a distance of at least 6 feet from the source


E. Keep all linens in the room until the source is removed


F. Allow pregnant staff to provide care if wearing a dosimeter


Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E


Explanation: Safety protocols for internal radiation involve time, distance, and shielding to

minimize exposure. A private room prevents exposure to other patients, while lead aprons

and distance protect the healthcare worker. Pregnant women and children should never be

allowed in the room because radiation is teratogenic.


3. A nurse assesses a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis and notes that the outflow is less

than the inflow. Which action should the nurse take first?

A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately


B. Reposition the client to a side-lying position


C. Check the tubing for kinks or clots


D. Irrigate the catheter with heparinized saline


Correct Answer: C


Explanation: Inadequate outflow in peritoneal dialysis is often caused by mechanical

obstructions. The nurse should first check the drainage system for kinks, closed clamps, or

external obstructions. If no kinks are found, repositioning the client is the next appropriate

step to facilitate drainage by gravity.

, 4. A client with cirrhosis is prescribed lactulose. Which finding indicates the medication is

achieving its therapeutic effect?

A. The client’s serum ammonia level is decreasing


B. The client has one soft bowel movement daily


C. The client’s abdominal girth is reducing


D. The client’s alanine aminotransferase (ALT) level is normal


Correct Answer: A


Explanation: Lactulose is administered to clients with hepatic encephalopathy to reduce

serum ammonia levels. It works by trapping ammonia in the gut and promoting its

excretion through frequent bowel movements. The goal is typically 2 to 3 soft stools per

day, accompanied by improved neurological status.


5. A nurse is caring for a client with Diabetes Insipidus (DI). Which assessment finding is

consistent with this diagnosis?

A. High serum osmolality and polyuria


B. Low urine output with high specific gravity


C. Weight gain and edema


D. Blood pressure of 160/94 mmHg


Correct Answer: A

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