Actual ATI RN Pharmacology Exam Retake 2023 with NGN Latest
2025 Version — 70 Real Retake Exam Questions and 100% ATI
Approved Answers | Pass the RN ATI Pharmacology Proctored
Exam 2026| with complete and verified solutions.
Section 1: Pharmacological Principles & Safety (Questions 1-10)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a high potential for
abuse but has accepted medical use. The nurse should recognize that this
medication is classified under which schedule?
• A) Schedule I
• B) Schedule II
• C) Schedule III
• D) Schedule IV
Answer: B) Schedule II
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, leading to severe
psychological or physical dependence. However, they have accepted medical use (e.g.,
morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl). Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use.
Schedule III and IV have lower abuse potential.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record and notes a
prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The available tablets are 0.125 mg. How
many tablets should the nurse administer?
• A) 0.5 tablet
• B) 1 tablet
• C) 2 tablets
• D) 2.5 tablets
, Answer: C) 2 tablets
Rationale: The desired dose is 0.25 mg. The available dose is 0.125 mg per
tablet. Tablets to administer=Desired DoseAvailable Dose=0.25 mg0.125 mg/tabl
et=2 tabletsTablets to administer=Available DoseDesired Dose=0.125 mg/tablet0.25 mg
=2 tablets
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which of the
following is the correct angle of insertion for a ventrogluteal site?
• A) 15 degrees
• B) 45 degrees
• C) 90 degrees
• D) 180 degrees
Answer: C) 90 degrees
Rationale: For intramuscular (IM) injections, the needle should be inserted at a 90-
degree angle to ensure the medication is deposited into the muscle tissue. A 15-degree
angle is used for intradermal, and a 45-degree angle is used for subcutaneous injections.
4. A client is prescribed a medication that is known to be a strong CYP3A4 inducer.
The nurse should monitor for which of the following effects on concurrent
medications?
• A) Increased therapeutic effect
• B) Decreased therapeutic effect
• C) Increased risk of toxicity
• D) No significant interaction
Answer: B) Decreased therapeutic effect
Rationale: CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine) increase the
metabolism of many drugs, leading to lower serum concentrations and decreased
therapeutic effects of the concurrent medications (e.g., oral contraceptives, warfarin).
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving
gentamicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
• A) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• B) BUN 15 mg/dL
• C) Gentamicin trough level 2.5 mcg/mL
• D) Gentamicin peak level 6 mcg/mL
Answer: C) Gentamicin trough level 2.5 mcg/mL
Rationale: The therapeutic trough level for gentamicin is typically less than 2 mcg/mL.
, A trough of 2.5 mcg/mL is elevated and indicates the drug is not being cleared
adequately, increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. This should be reported
to the provider.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin.
Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of the therapy?
• A) aPTT
• B) PT/INR
• C) Platelet count
• D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) aPTT
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the primary laboratory test
used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. The goal is to
maintain the aPTT at 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value.
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription
for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
• A) "I will take my warfarin at the same time every day."
• B) "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
• C) "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
• D) "I will report any unusual bleeding to my doctor."
Answer: C) "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects
of warfarin. A sudden increase in vitamin K intake can decrease the INR and reduce the
anticoagulant effect. The client should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich
foods.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
• B) Obtain the client's vital signs.
• C) Check the compatibility of the blood product with another nurse.
• D) Start the transfusion slowly.
Answer: A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
Rationale: According to the "Rights" of medication administration, the first and most
critical step is to verify the client's identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., name and
2025 Version — 70 Real Retake Exam Questions and 100% ATI
Approved Answers | Pass the RN ATI Pharmacology Proctored
Exam 2026| with complete and verified solutions.
Section 1: Pharmacological Principles & Safety (Questions 1-10)
1. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication that has a high potential for
abuse but has accepted medical use. The nurse should recognize that this
medication is classified under which schedule?
• A) Schedule I
• B) Schedule II
• C) Schedule III
• D) Schedule IV
Answer: B) Schedule II
Rationale: Schedule II drugs have a high potential for abuse, leading to severe
psychological or physical dependence. However, they have accepted medical use (e.g.,
morphine, oxycodone, fentanyl). Schedule I drugs have no accepted medical use.
Schedule III and IV have lower abuse potential.
2. A nurse is reviewing a client's medication administration record and notes a
prescription for digoxin 0.25 mg PO daily. The available tablets are 0.125 mg. How
many tablets should the nurse administer?
• A) 0.5 tablet
• B) 1 tablet
• C) 2 tablets
• D) 2.5 tablets
, Answer: C) 2 tablets
Rationale: The desired dose is 0.25 mg. The available dose is 0.125 mg per
tablet. Tablets to administer=Desired DoseAvailable Dose=0.25 mg0.125 mg/tabl
et=2 tabletsTablets to administer=Available DoseDesired Dose=0.125 mg/tablet0.25 mg
=2 tablets
3. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client. Which of the
following is the correct angle of insertion for a ventrogluteal site?
• A) 15 degrees
• B) 45 degrees
• C) 90 degrees
• D) 180 degrees
Answer: C) 90 degrees
Rationale: For intramuscular (IM) injections, the needle should be inserted at a 90-
degree angle to ensure the medication is deposited into the muscle tissue. A 15-degree
angle is used for intradermal, and a 45-degree angle is used for subcutaneous injections.
4. A client is prescribed a medication that is known to be a strong CYP3A4 inducer.
The nurse should monitor for which of the following effects on concurrent
medications?
• A) Increased therapeutic effect
• B) Decreased therapeutic effect
• C) Increased risk of toxicity
• D) No significant interaction
Answer: B) Decreased therapeutic effect
Rationale: CYP3A4 inducers (e.g., rifampin, phenytoin, carbamazepine) increase the
metabolism of many drugs, leading to lower serum concentrations and decreased
therapeutic effects of the concurrent medications (e.g., oral contraceptives, warfarin).
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory values of a client who is receiving
gentamicin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the
provider?
• A) Serum creatinine 0.8 mg/dL
• B) BUN 15 mg/dL
• C) Gentamicin trough level 2.5 mcg/mL
• D) Gentamicin peak level 6 mcg/mL
Answer: C) Gentamicin trough level 2.5 mcg/mL
Rationale: The therapeutic trough level for gentamicin is typically less than 2 mcg/mL.
, A trough of 2.5 mcg/mL is elevated and indicates the drug is not being cleared
adequately, increasing the risk of nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity. This should be reported
to the provider.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving a continuous IV infusion of heparin.
Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to evaluate the
effectiveness of the therapy?
• A) aPTT
• B) PT/INR
• C) Platelet count
• D) Hemoglobin
Answer: A) aPTT
Rationale: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the primary laboratory test
used to monitor the effectiveness of unfractionated heparin therapy. The goal is to
maintain the aPTT at 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value.
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new prescription
for warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
• A) "I will take my warfarin at the same time every day."
• B) "I will use a soft-bristled toothbrush."
• C) "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
• D) "I will report any unusual bleeding to my doctor."
Answer: C) "I will increase my intake of green leafy vegetables."
Rationale: Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, which antagonizes the effects
of warfarin. A sudden increase in vitamin K intake can decrease the INR and reduce the
anticoagulant effect. The client should maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K-rich
foods.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
• A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
• B) Obtain the client's vital signs.
• C) Check the compatibility of the blood product with another nurse.
• D) Start the transfusion slowly.
Answer: A) Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
Rationale: According to the "Rights" of medication administration, the first and most
critical step is to verify the client's identity using at least two identifiers (e.g., name and
