PROCTORED EXAM 2026 | Complete Study
Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers
& Detailed Rationales
ATI RN MATERNAL NEWBORN CMS PROCTORED EXAM 2026
Complete Study Guide | Practice Questions, Verified Answers & Detailed
Rationales
OVERVIEW
• This comprehensive study guide contains verified practice questions designed to
prepare you for the ATI RN Maternal Newborn CMS Proctored Exam with detailed
rationales for every answer to enhance your understanding of maternal-newborn
nursing concepts.
• Study this material by reviewing each question carefully, attempting to answer
before checking the correct response, and using the detailed rationales to
strengthen your clinical knowledge and test-taking strategies.
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE (Questions 1-30)
1. A 28-year-old primigravida at 12 weeks gestation presents to the prenatal
clinic for her first prenatal visit. The nurse is assessing the client's obstetric
history. What is the most important question the nurse should ask regarding
past medical history?
A) Have you ever had a cesarean delivery?
B) Do you have a history of gestational diabetes or hypertension?
C) Have you traveled outside the country in the last year?
D) Do you exercise regularly or play sports?
,E) Have you previously been pregnant?
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Do you have a history of gestational diabetes or
hypertension?
Rationale: A history of gestational diabetes or hypertension in a previous
pregnancy significantly increases the risk for these complications recurring in the
current pregnancy. These chronic conditions are risk factors for maternal and fetal
complications, making this the most critical question to ask during the initial
antepartum assessment. Previous cesarean delivery is important but not as
immediately critical for current pregnancy management. Travel history and exercise
habits are less significant for pregnancy risk assessment at this stage. This
information directly impacts the plan of care and monitoring needed throughout
pregnancy.
2. A client at 10 weeks gestation reports persistent vomiting and inability to
keep down food or liquids. The nurse suspects hyperemesis gravidarum.
Which laboratory finding would most likely be associated with this condition?
A) Hyperkalemia
B) Hypokalemia
C) Hypercalcemia
D) Hypernatremia
E) Hypoglycemia
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Hypokalemia
Rationale: Hyperemesis gravidarum involves severe and persistent vomiting
leading to significant fluid and electrolyte losses. Hypokalemia (low potassium)
results from the excessive loss of gastric fluids containing potassium. This
electrolyte imbalance can lead to cardiac arrhythmias and muscle weakness,
making it a critical concern. Hyperkalemia would be the opposite of what occurs.
Calcium and sodium levels may be affected but potassium loss is most
,characteristic. Hypoglycemia can occur but is not the primary finding associated
with hyperemesis gravidarum.
3. A pregnant client is being counseled about weight gain during pregnancy.
She is at a healthy pre-pregnancy BMI of 22. What is the recommended total
weight gain for this client during pregnancy?
A) 15 to 20 pounds
B) 25 to 35 pounds
C) 35 to 45 pounds
D) 20 to 25 pounds
E) 40 to 50 pounds
CORRECT ANSWER: B) 25 to 35 pounds
Rationale: According to the Institute of Medicine guidelines, a pregnant woman
with a pre-pregnancy BMI in the normal range (18.5-24.9) should gain 25 to 35
pounds during pregnancy. This weight gain supports fetal development, placental
growth, increased maternal blood volume, and maternal tissue changes. Women
who are underweight should gain more (28-40 pounds), overweight women should
gain less (15-25 pounds), and obese women should gain 11-20 pounds. Inadequate
weight gain increases risk of low birth weight infants and intrauterine growth
restriction.
4. During a prenatal visit, a client at 16 weeks gestation asks the nurse when
she will start to feel fetal movements. What is the most accurate response?
A) At 8 to 10 weeks of gestation
B) At 12 to 14 weeks of gestation
C) At 16 to 20 weeks of gestation
D) At 20 to 24 weeks of gestation
, E) At 24 to 28 weeks of gestation
CORRECT ANSWER: C) At 16 to 20 weeks of gestation
Rationale: Quickening (fetal movement felt by the mother) is first perceived by
multiparous women around 16 to 20 weeks of gestation and by primigravidas
around 18 to 20 weeks. This occurs because multiparous women are familiar with
the sensation. Movements occur earlier in gestation but are not felt by the mother.
The response should be individualized based on the client's parity and body
composition. Earlier options are when fetal movements are actually occurring but
not yet perceived by the mother. Later options indicate movements would be felt
well after quickening is typically first noticed.
5. A 32-year-old client at 8 weeks gestation reports light vaginal bleeding with
mild cramping. Vital signs are stable and the cervix appears closed on
examination. The nurse anticipates which outcome?
A) Inevitable abortion
B) Threatened abortion
C) Incomplete abortion
D) Missed abortion
E) Septic abortion
CORRECT ANSWER: B) Threatened abortion
Rationale: A threatened abortion is characterized by vaginal bleeding during the
first 20 weeks of pregnancy with a closed cervix and no passage of products of
conception. The outcome is uncertain—the pregnancy may continue or progress to
complete abortion. This is the most common type of early pregnancy loss. An
inevitable abortion includes cervical dilation with inevitable pregnancy loss. An
incomplete abortion involves passage of some but not all fetal tissue. A missed
abortion occurs when the fetus dies but is retained in the uterus. A septic abortion
involves infection. The closed cervix and stable condition in this scenario indicate
threatened abortion.