Nursing (2026) Q&A | Galen College
1. A client with major depressive disorder says, “I don’t see the point in
anything anymore.” What is the nurse’s priority assessment?
A) Ask about sleep and appetite changes
B) Directly ask if the client is thinking about suicide
C) Explore the client’s support system
D) Inquire about recent stressors
Correct Answer: Directly ask if the client is thinking about suicide
Rationale: Safety is the immediate priority. Directly asking about suicidal
thoughts does not plant the idea; it allows assessment of risk and ensures
appropriate interventions are implemented.
2. A client recently started on sertraline reports having more energy but still
feels hopeless. Which nursing action is most important?
A) Reassure the client that the medication will work soon
B) Increase the dose of sertraline
C) Assess for suicidal ideation and implement safety precautions
D) Encourage the client to engage in physical activity
Correct Answer: Assess for suicidal ideation and implement safety precautions
,Rationale: As energy improves before mood, the risk of acting on suicidal
thoughts may increase. The nurse must evaluate suicide risk and ensure a safe
environment.
3. A grieving spouse states, “I just can’t believe he’s gone.” The nurse recognizes
the client is in which stage of Kübler‑Ross grief?
A) Denial
B) Anger
C) Bargaining
D) Acceptance
Correct Answer: Denial
Rationale: Denial is characterized by shock and disbelief. The client’s statement
reflects an inability to accept the reality of the loss, a typical initial grief
response.
4. The nurse is caring for a terminally ill client who says, “If I pray every day,
maybe God will let me live.” The nurse documents this as:
A) Bargaining
B) Depression
C) Acceptance
D) Anger
Correct Answer: Bargaining
, Rationale: Bargaining involves attempting to negotiate for more time or a
different outcome. The client is expressing a hope that a change in behavior
might alter the prognosis.
5. A client with alcohol use disorder is admitted for detoxification. The nurse
anticipates which medication to be administered first?
A) Disulfiram
B) Naltrexone
C) Lorazepam
D) Acamprosate
Correct Answer: Lorazepam
Rationale: Benzodiazepines are first‑line to manage alcohol withdrawal
symptoms and prevent seizures and delirium tremens. Disulfiram, naltrexone,
and acamprosate are used for maintenance, not acute withdrawal.
6. A client receiving IV naloxone for opioid overdose becomes combative and
agitated. The nurse understands this is most likely due to:
A) An allergic reaction to naloxone
B) Precipitated opioid withdrawal
C) Hypoxia
D) Serotonin syndrome
Correct Answer: Precipitated opioid withdrawal