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BSN 246 HESI Part II Exam (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Health Assessment | A+ Graded | Nightingale College

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – This comprehensive study guide is designed for the BSN 246 HESI Part II Exam at Nightingale College (Latest 2026/2027 Update), featuring verified exam questions with correct answers and detailed rationales. This A+ Graded resource covers all key health assessment domains including physical examination techniques (inspection, palpation, percussion, auscultation), health history taking, and assessment of all body systems (integumentary, head and neck, thorax and lungs, cardiovascular, abdomen, musculoskeletal, neurological, and genitourinary). Includes high-yield content on normal versus abnormal findings, documentation, patient education, prioritization, and clinical judgment concepts designed to help nursing students succeed on the HESI Health Assessment exam . Aligned with Nightingale College BSN 246 curriculum and the 2026/2027 HESI exam blueprint . Verified Practice Questions & Answers: Q1: A patient with a history of glomerulonephritis presents with sudden weight gain and decreased urine output. What should the nurse prioritize in their assessment? Answer: Assess for signs of fluid overload and electrolyte imbalances . Rationale: Glomerulonephritis can lead to acute renal failure with fluid retention, requiring immediate assessment of fluid status and electrolyte monitoring. Q2: If a right-handed client presents with significant asymmetry in muscle strength during a musculoskeletal assessment, what would be the most appropriate nursing intervention? Answer: Refer the client for further diagnostic evaluation . Rationale: Significant asymmetry in muscle strength requires further evaluation to determine the underlying cause. Q3: If a nurse finds that the client's vital signs indicate hypotension and tachycardia after assessing a patient with bright red blood in vomit, what should be the next step in management? Answer: Initiate IV fluid resuscitation . Rationale: Bright red blood in vomit with hypotension and tachycardia indicates hemorrhagic shock, requiring immediate IV fluid resuscitation. Q4: Describe the significance of a butterfly rash in relation to systemic lupus erythematosus. Answer: The butterfly rash is a hallmark sign of systemic lupus erythematosus, indicating potential systemic involvement . Rationale: The malar or "butterfly" rash across the nose and cheeks is a classic cutaneous manifestation of SLE and often indicates active disease . Q5: A client with COPD is admitted with an exacerbation. What immediate nursing intervention should be prioritized? Answer: Administer supplemental oxygen as needed to improve oxygen saturation levels . Rationale: Maintaining adequate oxygenation is the priority in a COPD exacerbation to prevent respiratory failure. Q6: What is a common arterial blood gas (ABG) finding in patients with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)? Answer: Respiratory acidosis . Rationale: COPD causes CO2 retention due to impaired gas exchange, leading to respiratory acidosis. Q7: In a patient with liver disease, decreased albumin levels can cause: Answer: Ascites . Rationale: Low albumin levels decrease colloidal oncotic pressure, leading to fluid shifting into interstitial spaces and causing ascites . Q8: A client is experiencing an episode of hypoglycemia. The nurse understands that the physiological mechanism that should take place to combat this decrease in the blood glucose level is which mechanism? Answer: Increased glucagon secretion . Rationale: Glucagon is released by the pancreas in response to low blood glucose to stimulate glycogen breakdown and raise blood sugar levels. Q9: Describe the typical appearance of melasma and its common causes. Answer: Melasma typically appears as brown or gray-brown patches on the skin, often triggered by hormonal changes or sun exposure . Rationale: Melasma is a common hyperpigmentation disorder often associated with pregnancy, oral contraceptives, or sun exposure. Q10: The nurse is caring for a client with a new, unexpected sigmoid colostomy. Which is the appropriate outcome for the patient? Answer: The patient will empty and change the colostomy appliance . Rationale: The desired outcome for a knowledge deficit related to colostomy care is the patient's ability to independently perform the necessary care tasks. Q11: What key patient report makes you suspect the patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is having an acute exacerbation? Answer: Change in cough and sputum . Rationale: A change in the character, frequency, or amount of sputum is a key indicator of an acute exacerbation of COPD. Q12: When assessing a client who starts to wheeze related data should obtain? Answer: Precipitating factors . Rationale: Identifying triggers for wheezing is essential for diagnosis and management of respiratory conditions. Q13: A client diagnosed with primary open-angle glaucoma received a prescription for pilocarpine HCl (Pilocarpine). What instruction should the nurse plan to include in this client's teaching?

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Nightingale College




ISEH · 642 NSB
NIGHTINGALE
BSN Program — HESI Health Assessment Part II
EST. 2005
N U R T U R I N G T H E N E X T G E N E R AT I O N O F N U R S E S




HESI BSN 246 Part II
N I G H T I N GA L E CO L L E G E — B AC H E LO R O F S C I E N C E I N N U RS I N G

INSTITUTION Nightingale College PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing
(BSN)
COURSE CODE BSN 246 COURSE TITLE HESI Health Assessment Part II
ACADEMIC YEAR EXAM TITLE HESI BSN 246 Part II
TOTAL QUESTIONS 102 Questions FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the
Single Best Answer


EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless otherwise instructed.
▸ Select all that apply questions require choosing all correct options.
▸ Medical-surgical nursing, pathophysiology, pharmacology, and health assessment are all testable
content.
▸ Priority-setting, patient safety, and clinical reasoning are emphasized.
▸ Correct answers and clinical rationales appear below each question for review purposes.
▸ All clinical data reflects current evidence-based practice and HESI/Nursing program standards.

, SECTION I — COMPREHENSIVE MEDICAL-SURGICAL
Questions 1 – 102
NURSING & HEALTH ASSESSMENT

1. An adult client trapped in a burning house has suffered burns to the back of the head,
upper half of the posterior trunk, and the back of both arms. Using the rule of nines, what
does the nurse determine the extent of the burn injury to be? (Enter the answer in the
space provided.)
A. 18%
B. 22.5%
C. 27%
D. 31.5%
CORRECT ANSWER B — 22.5%
RATIONALE Using the rule of nines: back of the head = 4.5% (9% × 0.5), upper half of posterior
trunk = 9% (18% × 0.5), back of both arms = 9% (4.5% each arm × 2). Total = 4.5 + 9
+ 9 = 22.5%. The rule of nines is used to estimate total body surface area (TBSA)
burned in adults.


2. The nurse is assigned to the care of a client scheduled for surgery for a right colon tumor.
Which of the following is the most characteristic manifestation of cancer at this site?
A. Bright red blood in the stool
B. Dull abdominal pain exacerbated by walking
C. Change in bowel habits
D. Narrowing of stool caliber
CORRECT ANSWER B — Dull abdominal pain exacerbated by walking
RATIONALE Right colon tumors commonly present with dull abdominal pain that may be
exacerbated by walking, as well as anemia, weight loss, and a palpable mass. Left
colon tumors are more likely to cause changes in bowel habits, narrowing of stool
caliber, and bright red blood in the stool. The presentation varies by location.

,3. The nurse is reading the operative record of a client who had cardiac surgery and notes
that the client's cardiac output immediately after surgery was 3.2 L/min. Evaluation of the
cardiac output results leads the nurse to make which of the following conclusions?
A. The cardiac output is within normal range
B. The cardiac output is below the normal range
C. The cardiac output is above the normal range
D. The cardiac output indicates hyperdynamic circulation
CORRECT ANSWER B — The cardiac output is below the normal range
RATIONALE Normal cardiac output is 4-8 L/min. A cardiac output of 3.2 L/min is below the
normal range. This indicates decreased cardiac function and may lead to
insufficient tissue perfusion. The nurse should monitor for signs of decreased
cardiac output including hypotension, tachycardia, and altered mental status.


4. The nurse is assessing the client's muscle strength and notes that when asked, the client
cannot maintain his or her hands in a supinated position with the arms extended and eyes
closed. How would the nurse correctly document this finding on the medical record?
A. Client is exhibiting pronator drift
B. Client has positive Romberg test
C. Client has decreased muscle tone
D. Client is experiencing muscle weakness
CORRECT ANSWER A — Client is exhibiting pronator drift
RATIONALE Pronator drift is an abnormal neurological finding where the client cannot
maintain hands in a supinated position with arms extended and eyes closed. This
indicates upper motor neuron weakness. The pronator drift test is a sensitive
indicator of subtle motor weakness, often associated with cerebrovascular
accidents or other neurological conditions.

, 5. A client being seen in an ambulatory clinic for an unrelated complaint has a butterfly rash
noted across the nose. The nurse interprets that this finding is consistent with early
manifestations of which of the following disorders?
A. Rosacea
B. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Psoriasis
CORRECT ANSWER B — Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE)
RATIONALE A butterfly (malar) rash across the nose and cheeks is a classic early manifestation
of systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE). This rash is erythematous, may be raised
or flat, and spares the nasolabial folds. It is triggered by sun exposure in many
clients and is one of the diagnostic criteria for SLE.


6. The client is diagnosed with a full-thickness burn. The nurse understands that which of
the following structural areas of the skin is involved?
A. Epidermis only
B. Epidermis and upper dermis
C. Epidermis, entire dermis, and epithelial portion of subcutaneous fat
D. Epidermis, dermis, and all subcutaneous tissue
CORRECT ANSWER C — Epidermis, entire dermis, and epithelial portion of subcutaneous fat
RATIONALE A full-thickness burn (third-degree burn) involves the epidermis, entire dermis,
and the epithelial portion of the subcutaneous fat. These burns appear white,
charred, or leathery and are painless because nerve endings have been
destroyed. Full-thickness burns require skin grafting for healing.

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