ADVANCED PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 3
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM SCRIPT VERIFIED
QUESTIONS COMPLETE ANSWERS
GRADED APLUS
◉ A 72-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus
type 2 and systolic heart failure. He has never been diagnosed with
hypertension and his physical exam is normal. What is the most
likely cause of his heart failure?
Answer: Coronary Artery Disease
The most likely cause of this patient's heart failure is chronic
ischemic changes secondary to coronary artery disease. Diabetes
mellitus increases the risk for the development of coronary artery
disease.
◉ A 76-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a complaint
of syncope. Diagnostic evaluation reveals that she has an atrial
fibrillation with a heart rate of 160. Which statement below best
explains the reason why this patient had a syncopal episode.
Answer: A decrease in cardiac output caused a decrease in cerebral
perfusion.
, ◉ A45-year-old female presens to your office with fever and chills,
productive cough with rusty sputum, pleuritic chest pain and
dyspnea for 2 days. A CBC shows a neutrophila and the chest xray
shows an infiltrate in the left lower lobe. She has not had any sick
contacts and has not been hospitalized since she was a child. Which
organism is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
◉ A 70-year-old male patient is admitted with profuse diarrhea for
three days. He has a history of systolic heart failure and an ejection
fraction of 45%. He is weak and his vitals are 98.0oF, pulse 120,
respirations 18, and blood pressure 75/60 mmHg. The clinical
scenario is most consistent with which diagnosis?
Answer: Hypovolemic Shock
◉ Cardiogenic shock is characterized by....
Answer: persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion resulting
from impaired contractility in the presence of adequate
intravascular volume.
◉ Neurogenic shock is related to a systemic vasodilation which
results from an ________
Answer: imbalance between parasympathetic and sympathetic
nervous stimulation.
COMPREHENSIVE EXAM SCRIPT VERIFIED
QUESTIONS COMPLETE ANSWERS
GRADED APLUS
◉ A 72-year-old male patient with a history of diabetes mellitus
type 2 and systolic heart failure. He has never been diagnosed with
hypertension and his physical exam is normal. What is the most
likely cause of his heart failure?
Answer: Coronary Artery Disease
The most likely cause of this patient's heart failure is chronic
ischemic changes secondary to coronary artery disease. Diabetes
mellitus increases the risk for the development of coronary artery
disease.
◉ A 76-year-old female is admitted to the hospital with a complaint
of syncope. Diagnostic evaluation reveals that she has an atrial
fibrillation with a heart rate of 160. Which statement below best
explains the reason why this patient had a syncopal episode.
Answer: A decrease in cardiac output caused a decrease in cerebral
perfusion.
, ◉ A45-year-old female presens to your office with fever and chills,
productive cough with rusty sputum, pleuritic chest pain and
dyspnea for 2 days. A CBC shows a neutrophila and the chest xray
shows an infiltrate in the left lower lobe. She has not had any sick
contacts and has not been hospitalized since she was a child. Which
organism is the most likely cause of this patient's condition?
Answer: Streptococcus pneumoniae
◉ A 70-year-old male patient is admitted with profuse diarrhea for
three days. He has a history of systolic heart failure and an ejection
fraction of 45%. He is weak and his vitals are 98.0oF, pulse 120,
respirations 18, and blood pressure 75/60 mmHg. The clinical
scenario is most consistent with which diagnosis?
Answer: Hypovolemic Shock
◉ Cardiogenic shock is characterized by....
Answer: persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion resulting
from impaired contractility in the presence of adequate
intravascular volume.
◉ Neurogenic shock is related to a systemic vasodilation which
results from an ________
Answer: imbalance between parasympathetic and sympathetic
nervous stimulation.
