BSN 266 ADMINISTRATION OF PARENTERAL MEDICATIONS: IV MEDS
LESSON 2 POST-TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE | VERIFIED 100% CORRECT
Course: BSN 266 - Professional Nursing Practice
Exam Type: Lesson 2 Post-Test (Formative Assessment)
Date: July 2026 | Total Questions: 30 | Total Points: 100 (~3.33 pts each)
Select the BEST answer for each question. Each question is worth approximately 3.33 points.
SECTION 1: IV Push (Bolus) Administration Techniques & Rates (Q1-Q8)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV push. The drug reference states to administer
over 1-2 minutes. Which technique ensures the safest administration?
A. Dilute in 100 mL NS and infuse over 30 minutes
B. Administer the undiluted medication at a rate of approximately 20 mg per minute, pushing steadily
over 2 minutes while monitoring the patient for adverse reactions [CORRECT]
C. Administer the full 40 mg as a rapid bolus in under 10 seconds
D. Administer half the dose, wait 5 minutes, then administer the other half
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV push furosemide should be administered undiluted or diluted in a small volume at a rate of 20 mg/min (40 mg over 2
minutes). Rapid administration (C) causes ototoxicity and hypotension. Diluting in 100 mL (A) is unnecessary and changes the
administration route to intermittent infusion. Splitting the dose (D) is not standard protocol.
Q2. A nurse is administering an IV push medication through a saline lock. What is the correct sequence?
A. Flush, inject medication, then flush again
B. Inject medication, then flush
C. Flush with 5-10 mL NS, administer the IV push medication at the prescribed rate, then flush with
5-10 mL NS [CORRECT]
D. Flush after only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for saline lock IV push is: pre-flush with 5-10 mL NS (verify patency), administer the medication
at the prescribed rate, then post-flush with 5-10 mL NS (ensure full dose delivery and clear the lock). Omitting the pre-flush risks
injection into an occluded or infiltrated line.
Q3. A nurse is about to administer IV push morphine 2 mg to a post-operative patient. The patient's
respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute. What is the correct nursing action?
A. Administer the morphine and monitor respiratory status
B. Hold the medication, reassess the patient, and notify the provider of the respiratory rate before
administering [CORRECT]
C. Administer half the dose (1 mg) since the respiratory rate is low
D. Administer the morphine and instruct the patient to take deep breaths
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min in a patient about to receive an opioid is a critical safety concern. The nurse must hold
the medication, reassess, and notify the provider before administration. Administering any amount of opioid (A, C, D) to a patient
with respiratory depression is unsafe and could cause respiratory arrest.
, Q4. A nurse administers an IV push medication and observes the patient develop urticaria and facial swelling
within 30 seconds. What is the FIRST action?
A. Slow the injection rate and continue
B. Stop the injection immediately, maintain airway patency, prepare to administer epinephrine, and call
for assistance [CORRECT]
C. Document the reaction and complete the injection
D. Administer diphenhydramine and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urticaria and facial swelling are signs of anaphylaxis, a life-threatening reaction requiring immediate cessation of the
injection, airway management, epinephrine preparation, and emergency assistance. Slowing the rate (A) or continuing (C) worsens
the reaction. Diphenhydramine (D) alone is insufficient for anaphylaxis.
Q5. A nurse is preparing to administer IV push diazepam. Which consideration is MOST important?
A. Diazepam should be administered rapidly for maximum effect
B. Diazepam is compatible with all IV fluids for dilution
C. Diazepam must be administered slowly (no faster than 5 mg/min) and is incompatible with NS; use
D5W as the diluent, and avoid small veins due to risk of venous irritation [CORRECT]
D. Diazepam should be given IM for best absorption
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diazepam requires slow administration (max 5 mg/min) to prevent apnea or hypotension. It is incompatible with NS
(causes precipitation) and should be diluted in D5W. It is irritating to veins, so a large vein should be used. Rapid administration (A)
risks respiratory arrest. NS incompatibility (B) is incorrect. IM absorption (D) is erratic for diazepam.
Q6. A nurse is administering an IV push medication and notes the patient winces and reports a burning
sensation at the IV site during injection. The site appears normal without swelling or redness. What should
the nurse do FIRST?
A. Continue the injection at a slower rate
B. Stop the injection, assess the IV site and catheter position, flush with NS, and consider repositioning
the extremity or restarting the IV if the sensation persists [CORRECT]
C. Administer an analgesic and continue the injection
D. Switch to an IM route immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Burning during IV push may indicate the catheter tip is against the vein wall or a venous valve, causing medication
irritation. The nurse should stop, assess, flush, and attempt repositioning. Continuing (A, C) without assessment risks extravasation.
Switching to IM (D) requires a provider order and is premature.
Q7. A nursing student asks, "Why do we inject IV push medications slowly rather than quickly?" Which is
the BEST explanation?
A. Slow injection reduces the cost of the medication
B. Many IV push medications cause acute adverse effects (hypotension, arrhythmias, apnea) if the
plasma concentration rises too rapidly; controlled injection rate allows safe distribution [CORRECT]
C. Slow injection is required only for older adult patients
D. Rapid injection makes the medication less effective
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Controlled IV push rates prevent dangerous plasma concentration spikes that can cause cardiovascular, respiratory, or
neurological adverse effects. This principle applies to all patients, not just older adults (C). Cost (A) is irrelevant. Rapid injection
does not reduce efficacy (D); it increases toxicity risk.
LESSON 2 POST-TEST
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | 2026 UPDATE | VERIFIED 100% CORRECT
Course: BSN 266 - Professional Nursing Practice
Exam Type: Lesson 2 Post-Test (Formative Assessment)
Date: July 2026 | Total Questions: 30 | Total Points: 100 (~3.33 pts each)
Select the BEST answer for each question. Each question is worth approximately 3.33 points.
SECTION 1: IV Push (Bolus) Administration Techniques & Rates (Q1-Q8)
Q1. A nurse is preparing to administer furosemide 40 mg IV push. The drug reference states to administer
over 1-2 minutes. Which technique ensures the safest administration?
A. Dilute in 100 mL NS and infuse over 30 minutes
B. Administer the undiluted medication at a rate of approximately 20 mg per minute, pushing steadily
over 2 minutes while monitoring the patient for adverse reactions [CORRECT]
C. Administer the full 40 mg as a rapid bolus in under 10 seconds
D. Administer half the dose, wait 5 minutes, then administer the other half
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: IV push furosemide should be administered undiluted or diluted in a small volume at a rate of 20 mg/min (40 mg over 2
minutes). Rapid administration (C) causes ototoxicity and hypotension. Diluting in 100 mL (A) is unnecessary and changes the
administration route to intermittent infusion. Splitting the dose (D) is not standard protocol.
Q2. A nurse is administering an IV push medication through a saline lock. What is the correct sequence?
A. Flush, inject medication, then flush again
B. Inject medication, then flush
C. Flush with 5-10 mL NS, administer the IV push medication at the prescribed rate, then flush with
5-10 mL NS [CORRECT]
D. Flush after only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The correct sequence for saline lock IV push is: pre-flush with 5-10 mL NS (verify patency), administer the medication
at the prescribed rate, then post-flush with 5-10 mL NS (ensure full dose delivery and clear the lock). Omitting the pre-flush risks
injection into an occluded or infiltrated line.
Q3. A nurse is about to administer IV push morphine 2 mg to a post-operative patient. The patient's
respiratory rate is 8 breaths per minute. What is the correct nursing action?
A. Administer the morphine and monitor respiratory status
B. Hold the medication, reassess the patient, and notify the provider of the respiratory rate before
administering [CORRECT]
C. Administer half the dose (1 mg) since the respiratory rate is low
D. Administer the morphine and instruct the patient to take deep breaths
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A respiratory rate of 8 breaths/min in a patient about to receive an opioid is a critical safety concern. The nurse must hold
the medication, reassess, and notify the provider before administration. Administering any amount of opioid (A, C, D) to a patient
with respiratory depression is unsafe and could cause respiratory arrest.
, Q4. A nurse administers an IV push medication and observes the patient develop urticaria and facial swelling
within 30 seconds. What is the FIRST action?
A. Slow the injection rate and continue
B. Stop the injection immediately, maintain airway patency, prepare to administer epinephrine, and call
for assistance [CORRECT]
C. Document the reaction and complete the injection
D. Administer diphenhydramine and continue monitoring
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Urticaria and facial swelling are signs of anaphylaxis, a life-threatening reaction requiring immediate cessation of the
injection, airway management, epinephrine preparation, and emergency assistance. Slowing the rate (A) or continuing (C) worsens
the reaction. Diphenhydramine (D) alone is insufficient for anaphylaxis.
Q5. A nurse is preparing to administer IV push diazepam. Which consideration is MOST important?
A. Diazepam should be administered rapidly for maximum effect
B. Diazepam is compatible with all IV fluids for dilution
C. Diazepam must be administered slowly (no faster than 5 mg/min) and is incompatible with NS; use
D5W as the diluent, and avoid small veins due to risk of venous irritation [CORRECT]
D. Diazepam should be given IM for best absorption
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Diazepam requires slow administration (max 5 mg/min) to prevent apnea or hypotension. It is incompatible with NS
(causes precipitation) and should be diluted in D5W. It is irritating to veins, so a large vein should be used. Rapid administration (A)
risks respiratory arrest. NS incompatibility (B) is incorrect. IM absorption (D) is erratic for diazepam.
Q6. A nurse is administering an IV push medication and notes the patient winces and reports a burning
sensation at the IV site during injection. The site appears normal without swelling or redness. What should
the nurse do FIRST?
A. Continue the injection at a slower rate
B. Stop the injection, assess the IV site and catheter position, flush with NS, and consider repositioning
the extremity or restarting the IV if the sensation persists [CORRECT]
C. Administer an analgesic and continue the injection
D. Switch to an IM route immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Burning during IV push may indicate the catheter tip is against the vein wall or a venous valve, causing medication
irritation. The nurse should stop, assess, flush, and attempt repositioning. Continuing (A, C) without assessment risks extravasation.
Switching to IM (D) requires a provider order and is premature.
Q7. A nursing student asks, "Why do we inject IV push medications slowly rather than quickly?" Which is
the BEST explanation?
A. Slow injection reduces the cost of the medication
B. Many IV push medications cause acute adverse effects (hypotension, arrhythmias, apnea) if the
plasma concentration rises too rapidly; controlled injection rate allows safe distribution [CORRECT]
C. Slow injection is required only for older adult patients
D. Rapid injection makes the medication less effective
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Controlled IV push rates prevent dangerous plasma concentration spikes that can cause cardiovascular, respiratory, or
neurological adverse effects. This principle applies to all patients, not just older adults (C). Cost (A) is irrelevant. Rapid injection
does not reduce efficacy (D); it increases toxicity risk.
