CMN568 / CMN 568 Intro to Family NP Unit 1 Exam
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
CMN568 / CMN 568 (Latest 2026/2027) Intro to Family NP
Unit 1 Exam Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A – South Alabama 2026/2027
University of South Alabama | Intro to Family Nurse Practitioner
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning
• Professional Practice & Healthcare Systems
• Pharmacology for the Family Nurse Practitioner • Pathophysiology & Differential Diagnosis
• Health Promotion & Disease Prevention • Evidence-Based Practice & Clinical Decision-Making
COVER PAGE - 1
CMN568 / CMN 568 Unit 1 Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1
,SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning | Q1-Q15 | CMN568 Unit 1 Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 42-year-old woman presents to the family nurse practitioner clinic with a 3-week history of
persistent cough, low-grade fever, and fatigue. She reports the cough is worse at night and
produces yellow sputum. On auscultation, the FNP hears coarse crackles in the right lower
lobe. Which finding on chest X-ray would most strongly support a diagnosis of
community-acquired pneumonia?
A. Hyperinflation of both lung fields
B. A dense lobar infiltrate in the right lower lobe
C. Bilateral interstitial markings with Kerley B lines
D. A small right-sided pleural effusion without infiltrate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A dense lobar infiltrate on chest X-ray is the classic radiographic finding for community-acquired bacterial pneumonia,
particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae. Hyperinflation suggests COPD or asthma. Kerley B lines indicate pulmonary
edema. A small pleural effusion without infiltrate could represent parapneumonic effusion but is not diagnostic of
pneumonia itself.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
During a cardiovascular examination, a 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension is found
to have a blood pressure of 168/96 mmHg in the right arm and 172/98 mmHg in the left arm after
5 minutes of rest. His pulse is 78 bpm and regular. Which classification of blood pressure does
this represent according to ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Hypertensive urgency
D. Isolated systolic hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg or
higher or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or higher. This patient's readings of 168/96 and 172/98 meet criteria for
Stage 2. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89. Hypertensive urgency requires BP of 180/120 or higher without target organ damage.
Isolated systolic hypertension requires elevated systolic with normal diastolic.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 35-year-old man presents with a sore throat, fever of 38.8 degrees C, and tender anterior
cervical lymphadenopathy. On examination, the FNP notes erythematous tonsils with white
exudates and the absence of cough. Which clinical decision rule should the FNP use to
determine the need for rapid streptococcal antigen testing?
A. Wells criteria
B. Centor criteria
C. Ottawa ankle rules
D. HEART score
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Centor criteria are used to assess the probability of group A streptococcal pharyngitis and guide the decision for
rapid strep testing or empiric antibiotic therapy. The criteria include fever, tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical
adenopathy, and absence CMN568
of cough./ CMN
Wells568
criteria
Unit 1assess
Exam - DVT/PE
2026/2027risk. Ottawa
| Passing ankle
Score: rules
80% determine
| Page 2 need for ankle
X-ray. The HEART score assesses cardiac risk in chest pain.
, SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning | Q1-Q15 | CMN568 Unit 1 Exam 2026/2027
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 28-year-old woman presents for a routine well-woman examination. She reports regular
menstrual cycles every 28 days, lasting 4-5 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period
was 2 weeks ago. On bimanual examination, the FNP palpates a smooth, mobile, nontender
4-cm mass in the right adnexa. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate as the next step?
A. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
C. Serum CA-125 level
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for evaluating adnexal masses in premenopausal
women. It can differentiate between cystic, solid, and complex masses and help determine if the mass is ovarian or
extra-ovarian. CT is reserved for suspected malignancy or complex cases. CA-125 is not sensitive in premenopausal
women and is not a first-line test. Laparoscopy is reserved for persistent or suspicious masses.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 62-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents for a follow-up visit. She reports numbness
and tingling in both feet that is worse at night. On monofilament testing, the FNP notes
diminished sensation on the plantar surfaces of both feet. Which complication of diabetes is
most consistent with these findings?
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Autonomic neuropathy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy is characterized by symmetric, distal, sensory-predominant polyneuropathy, typically
presenting as numbness, tingling, and burning pain in a stocking-glove distribution. Diminished monofilament sensation
confirms large-fiber neuropathy. Diabetic nephropathy presents with proteinuria and declining GFR. Retinopathy presents
with visual changes. Autonomic neuropathy affects GI, genitourinary, and cardiovascular systems.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 45-year-old man presents with epigastric pain that worsens 2-3 hours after meals and is
partially relieved by eating. He denies nausea, vomiting, or melena. On physical examination,
the FNP notes mild epigastric tenderness without rebound or guarding. Which condition is most
likely?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Duodenal ulcer classically presents with epigastric pain that occurs 2-3 hours after meals (when acid is unbuffered by
food) and is relieved by eating (which stimulates bicarbonate secretion). Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant pain
after fatty meals. GERD causes retrosternal burning worse after meals and when supine. Pancreatitis causes severe,
constant epigastric pain radiating to the back with nausea and vomiting.
CMN568 / CMN 568 Unit 1 Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
CMN568 / CMN 568 (Latest 2026/2027) Intro to Family NP
Unit 1 Exam Questions and Verified Answers | 100%
Correct | Grade A – South Alabama 2026/2027
University of South Alabama | Intro to Family Nurse Practitioner
75 100%
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning
• Professional Practice & Healthcare Systems
• Pharmacology for the Family Nurse Practitioner • Pathophysiology & Differential Diagnosis
• Health Promotion & Disease Prevention • Evidence-Based Practice & Clinical Decision-Making
COVER PAGE - 1
CMN568 / CMN 568 Unit 1 Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 1
,SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning | Q1-Q15 | CMN568 Unit 1 Exam 2026/2027
Q1 Question 1 of 75
A 42-year-old woman presents to the family nurse practitioner clinic with a 3-week history of
persistent cough, low-grade fever, and fatigue. She reports the cough is worse at night and
produces yellow sputum. On auscultation, the FNP hears coarse crackles in the right lower
lobe. Which finding on chest X-ray would most strongly support a diagnosis of
community-acquired pneumonia?
A. Hyperinflation of both lung fields
B. A dense lobar infiltrate in the right lower lobe
C. Bilateral interstitial markings with Kerley B lines
D. A small right-sided pleural effusion without infiltrate
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
A dense lobar infiltrate on chest X-ray is the classic radiographic finding for community-acquired bacterial pneumonia,
particularly Streptococcus pneumoniae. Hyperinflation suggests COPD or asthma. Kerley B lines indicate pulmonary
edema. A small pleural effusion without infiltrate could represent parapneumonic effusion but is not diagnostic of
pneumonia itself.
Q2 Question 2 of 75
During a cardiovascular examination, a 58-year-old man with a history of hypertension is found
to have a blood pressure of 168/96 mmHg in the right arm and 172/98 mmHg in the left arm after
5 minutes of rest. His pulse is 78 bpm and regular. Which classification of blood pressure does
this represent according to ACC/AHA guidelines?
A. Stage 1 hypertension
B. Stage 2 hypertension
C. Hypertensive urgency
D. Isolated systolic hypertension
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
According to the 2017 ACC/AHA guidelines, Stage 2 hypertension is defined as systolic blood pressure of 140 mmHg or
higher or diastolic blood pressure of 90 mmHg or higher. This patient's readings of 168/96 and 172/98 meet criteria for
Stage 2. Stage 1 is 130-139/80-89. Hypertensive urgency requires BP of 180/120 or higher without target organ damage.
Isolated systolic hypertension requires elevated systolic with normal diastolic.
Q3 Question 3 of 75
A 35-year-old man presents with a sore throat, fever of 38.8 degrees C, and tender anterior
cervical lymphadenopathy. On examination, the FNP notes erythematous tonsils with white
exudates and the absence of cough. Which clinical decision rule should the FNP use to
determine the need for rapid streptococcal antigen testing?
A. Wells criteria
B. Centor criteria
C. Ottawa ankle rules
D. HEART score
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
The Centor criteria are used to assess the probability of group A streptococcal pharyngitis and guide the decision for
rapid strep testing or empiric antibiotic therapy. The criteria include fever, tonsillar exudates, tender anterior cervical
adenopathy, and absence CMN568
of cough./ CMN
Wells568
criteria
Unit 1assess
Exam - DVT/PE
2026/2027risk. Ottawa
| Passing ankle
Score: rules
80% determine
| Page 2 need for ankle
X-ray. The HEART score assesses cardiac risk in chest pain.
, SECTION 1 | Advanced Health Assessment & Diagnostic Reasoning | Q1-Q15 | CMN568 Unit 1 Exam 2026/2027
Q4 Question 4 of 75
A 28-year-old woman presents for a routine well-woman examination. She reports regular
menstrual cycles every 28 days, lasting 4-5 days with moderate flow. Her last menstrual period
was 2 weeks ago. On bimanual examination, the FNP palpates a smooth, mobile, nontender
4-cm mass in the right adnexa. Which diagnostic study is most appropriate as the next step?
A. CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
B. Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound
C. Serum CA-125 level
D. Diagnostic laparoscopy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Transvaginal pelvic ultrasound is the initial imaging modality of choice for evaluating adnexal masses in premenopausal
women. It can differentiate between cystic, solid, and complex masses and help determine if the mass is ovarian or
extra-ovarian. CT is reserved for suspected malignancy or complex cases. CA-125 is not sensitive in premenopausal
women and is not a first-line test. Laparoscopy is reserved for persistent or suspicious masses.
Q5 Question 5 of 75
A 62-year-old woman with type 2 diabetes presents for a follow-up visit. She reports numbness
and tingling in both feet that is worse at night. On monofilament testing, the FNP notes
diminished sensation on the plantar surfaces of both feet. Which complication of diabetes is
most consistent with these findings?
A. Diabetic nephropathy
B. Diabetic peripheral neuropathy
C. Diabetic retinopathy
D. Autonomic neuropathy
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Diabetic peripheral neuropathy is characterized by symmetric, distal, sensory-predominant polyneuropathy, typically
presenting as numbness, tingling, and burning pain in a stocking-glove distribution. Diminished monofilament sensation
confirms large-fiber neuropathy. Diabetic nephropathy presents with proteinuria and declining GFR. Retinopathy presents
with visual changes. Autonomic neuropathy affects GI, genitourinary, and cardiovascular systems.
Q6 Question 6 of 75
A 45-year-old man presents with epigastric pain that worsens 2-3 hours after meals and is
partially relieved by eating. He denies nausea, vomiting, or melena. On physical examination,
the FNP notes mild epigastric tenderness without rebound or guarding. Which condition is most
likely?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Duodenal ulcer
C. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
D. Acute pancreatitis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale:
Duodenal ulcer classically presents with epigastric pain that occurs 2-3 hours after meals (when acid is unbuffered by
food) and is relieved by eating (which stimulates bicarbonate secretion). Cholecystitis causes right upper quadrant pain
after fatty meals. GERD causes retrosternal burning worse after meals and when supine. Pancreatitis causes severe,
constant epigastric pain radiating to the back with nausea and vomiting.
CMN568 / CMN 568 Unit 1 Exam - 2026/2027 | Passing Score: 80% | Page 3
