ISEH · 662 NSB
★ ★
N School of Nursing
EST. 2010
CONFIDENCE · COMPETENCE · COMPASSION
BSN 266 HESI — Comprehensive Nursing Review
M E D I C A L-S U R G I C A L N U RS I N G & P H A R M ACO LO G Y | A L R E A DY G RA D E D A +
INSTITUTION Nightingale College COURSE CODE BSN 266
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing ACADEMIC YEAR
(BSN)
EXAM TITLE BSN 266 HESI — Comprehensive TOTAL QUESTIONS 54 Questions
Nursing Review
COURSE TITLE Medical-Surgical Nursing & FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the
Pharmacology Single Best Answer
EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless otherwise instructed.
▸ Nursing interventions, pharmacology, pathophysiology, and prioritization are all testable content.
▸ Select all that apply (SATA) questions require careful evaluation of each option.
▸ Correct answers and detailed rationales appear below each question for NCLEX/HESI review purposes.
▸ All content reflects evidence-based nursing practice and current clinical guidelines.
, SECTION I — MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING &
Questions 1 – 54
PHARMACOLOGY
1. A client with acute osteomyelitis has undergone surgical debridement of the diseased
bone and asks the nurse how long antibiotics will have to be administered. Which
information should the nurse communicate?
A. Oral antibiotics for 2 to 4 months, then for dental procedure prophylaxis
B. Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks, then oral antibiotics for up to 1 year
C. Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks
D. Parenteral antibiotics for 2 to 3 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 weeks
CORRECT ANSWER C — Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 to 8
weeks
RATIONALE Treatment of acute osteomyelitis requires the administration of high doses of
parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, followed by oral antibiotics for another 4 to
8 weeks. This prolonged course is necessary to ensure eradication of the infection
in the bone tissue.
2. In planning care for a client with an acute stroke resulting in right-sided hemiplegia, which
positioning should the nurse use to maintain optimal functioning?
A. Mid-Fowler's with knees supported
B. Supine with trochanter rolls to the hips
C. Sim's position alternated with right lateral position q2 hours
D. Left lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and prone
CORRECT ANSWER D — Left lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and prone
RATIONALE After an acute stroke, a positioning and turning schedule that minimizes lying on
the affected side, which can impair circulation and cause pain, and includes the
prone position to help prevent flexion contractures of the hips, prepares the client
for optimal functioning and ambulation.
, 3. Which preexisting diagnosis places a client at the greatest risk of developing superior vena
cava syndrome?
A. Carotid stenosis
B. Steatosis hepatitis
C. Metastatic cancer
D. Clavicular fracture
CORRECT ANSWER C — Metastatic cancer
RATIONALE Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava (SVC) is
compressed by outside structures, such as a growing tumor that impedes the
return blood flow to the heart. It is likely to occur with metastatic cancer from a
primary tumor in the upper lobe of the right lung that compresses the SVC.
4. The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with chronic prostatitis. What
instruction should the nurse provide the client to reduce the risk of spreading the
infection to other areas of the client's urinary tract?
A. Wear a condom when having sexual intercourse
B. Avoid consuming alcohol and caffeinated beverages
C. Empty the bladder completely with each voiding
D. Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week
CORRECT ANSWER D — Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week
RATIONALE The prostate is not easily penetrated by antibiotics and can serve as a reservoir for
microorganisms, which can infect other areas of the genitourinary tract. Draining
the prostate regularly through intercourse or masturbation decreases the number
of microorganisms present and reduces the risk for further infection from stored
contaminated seminal fluids.