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BSN 266 HESI Comprehensive Nursing Review (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Medical-Surgical Nursing | A+ Graded | Nightingale College

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD – This comprehensive study guide is designed for the BSN 266 HESI Exam (Latest 2026/2027 Update) at Nightingale College, featuring verified practice questions with correct answers and detailed rationales . This resource covers all core content areas tested on the HESI 266 exam, including medical-surgical nursing (cardiovascular, respiratory, neurological, gastrointestinal, renal, endocrine, musculoskeletal, immunological, hematological, and integumentary disorders) , pharmacology (high-alert medications, drug calculations, side effect recognition), and clinical prioritization (ABCs, Maslow's Hierarchy) . Key topics include compartment syndrome management after leg casting (pale foot with sluggish capillary refill requiring immediate intervention), morphine sulfate patch overdose requiring narcotic antagonist administration , post-TURP discharge teaching (drink 3L of water daily) , and priority nursing interventions for chest tube continuous bubbling indicating an air leak requiring system assessment . Practice Questions from the Latest HESI 266 Exam: Q1: A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement? Answer: D. Give an antihypertensive medication. Rationale: Completed strokes usually produce neurologic deficits within an hour, and the client's current elevated blood pressure requires antihypertensive medication to prevent further damage. Most ischemic strokes occur during sleep when baseline blood pressure declines or blood viscosity increases due to minimal fluid intake . Q2: The nurse is caring for a client admitted with a tentative diagnosis of bacterial meningitis. Which diagnostic procedure should the nurse prepare the client for? Answer: A. Lumbar puncture. Rationale: A lumbar puncture is the definitive diagnostic procedure for bacterial meningitis, allowing cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis to identify the causative organism. A lumbar puncture is the priority diagnostic test for suspected bacterial meningitis . Q3: A client with cirrhosis presents with 4+ pitting edema of the feet and legs, and massive ascites. Which mechanism contributes to edema and ascites in a client with cirrhosis? Answer: B. Hypoalbuminemia that results in decreased colloidal oncotic pressure. Rationale: In cirrhosis, the liver's decreased synthesis of albumin leads to hypoalbuminemia. Albumin plays a crucial role in maintaining colloidal oncotic pressure; when decreased, fluid leaks out of blood vessels, resulting in edema and contributing to the development of ascites in the abdominal cavity . Q4: A client on a thiazide diuretic for the past six months has a serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L. The nurse anticipates which change in prescription for the client? Answer: C. A potassium supplement will be prescribed. Rationale: This client's potassium level is below the normal range (3.5-5.5 mEq/L). Thiazide diuretics often result in potassium loss, so a potassium supplement needs to be prescribed to restore a normal serum potassium level . Q5: Which action should the nurse implement first for a client with septic shock receiving norepinephrine who develops extravasation with blanching and swelling at the peripheral IV insertion site? Answer: B. Administer phentolamine 5-10 mg diluted in 10 mL normal saline as local subcutaneous infiltration. Rationale: Extravasation of vasopressors like norepinephrine can cause severe tissue ischemia and necrosis. The first-line treatment is local infiltration of phentolamine, an alpha-adrenergic blocker, to reverse vasoconstriction and prevent tissue damage. Warm compresses may worsen injury by increasing metabolic demand . Q6: A client with newly diagnosed Crohn's disease asks the nurse about dietary restrictions. How should the nurse respond? Answer: A. Describe the use of an elimination diet to find trigger foods. Rationale: Crohn's disease is a chronic inflammatory bowel disease where diet can trigger exacerbations. An elimination diet helps identify specific food triggers by systematically removing and reintroducing foods to pinpoint what aggravates symptoms. This client-centered, individualized approach is the most appropriate initial dietary guidance . Q7: A male client who had abdominal surgery 5 days ago and is hospitalized because of a surgical wound infection tells the nurse that he feels like his "insides just spilled out" when he coughed. What action should the nurse take first? Answer: A. Visualize the abdominal incision. Rationale: The client's description is consistent with wound dehiscence or evisceration. The nurse must first visualize the incision to confirm the finding before notifying the healthcare provider or preparing sterile supplies. Assessment is the priority nursing action . Q8: A client with multiple sclerosis (MS) is admitted to the medical unit and reports fatigue, muscle weakness, and diplopia. Which actions should the nurse implement to reduce the client's risk for falls? (Select All That Apply) Answer: A. Provide assistance to bedside commode; C. Schedule frequent rest periods; E. Teach to patch one eye while walking. Rationale: MS can cause muscle weakness, fatigue, and diplopia (double vision), increasing fall risk. Assisting with toileting prevents overexertion, frequent rest periods conserve energy, and patching one eye can reduce diplopia when ambulating. Warm baths (C) may exacerbate MS symptoms .

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Nightingale College




ISEH · 662 NSB
★ ★



N School of Nursing
EST. 2010
CONFIDENCE · COMPETENCE · COMPASSION




BSN 266 HESI — Comprehensive Nursing Review
M E D I C A L-S U R G I C A L N U RS I N G & P H A R M ACO LO G Y | A L R E A DY G RA D E D A +

INSTITUTION Nightingale College COURSE CODE BSN 266
PROGRAM Bachelor of Science in Nursing ACADEMIC YEAR
(BSN)
EXAM TITLE BSN 266 HESI — Comprehensive TOTAL QUESTIONS 54 Questions
Nursing Review
COURSE TITLE Medical-Surgical Nursing & FORMAT Multiple Choice — Select the
Pharmacology Single Best Answer


EXAMINATION INSTRUCTIONS
▸ Select the single best answer for each question unless otherwise instructed.
▸ Nursing interventions, pharmacology, pathophysiology, and prioritization are all testable content.
▸ Select all that apply (SATA) questions require careful evaluation of each option.
▸ Correct answers and detailed rationales appear below each question for NCLEX/HESI review purposes.
▸ All content reflects evidence-based nursing practice and current clinical guidelines.

, SECTION I — MEDICAL-SURGICAL NURSING &
Questions 1 – 54
PHARMACOLOGY

1. A client with acute osteomyelitis has undergone surgical debridement of the diseased
bone and asks the nurse how long antibiotics will have to be administered. Which
information should the nurse communicate?
A. Oral antibiotics for 2 to 4 months, then for dental procedure prophylaxis
B. Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 6 weeks, then oral antibiotics for up to 1 year
C. Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks
D. Parenteral antibiotics for 2 to 3 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 weeks
CORRECT ANSWER C — Parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, then oral antibiotics for 4 to 8
weeks
RATIONALE Treatment of acute osteomyelitis requires the administration of high doses of
parenteral antibiotics for 4 to 8 weeks, followed by oral antibiotics for another 4 to
8 weeks. This prolonged course is necessary to ensure eradication of the infection
in the bone tissue.

2. In planning care for a client with an acute stroke resulting in right-sided hemiplegia, which
positioning should the nurse use to maintain optimal functioning?
A. Mid-Fowler's with knees supported
B. Supine with trochanter rolls to the hips
C. Sim's position alternated with right lateral position q2 hours
D. Left lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and prone
CORRECT ANSWER D — Left lateral, supine, brief periods on the right side, and prone
RATIONALE After an acute stroke, a positioning and turning schedule that minimizes lying on
the affected side, which can impair circulation and cause pain, and includes the
prone position to help prevent flexion contractures of the hips, prepares the client
for optimal functioning and ambulation.

, 3. Which preexisting diagnosis places a client at the greatest risk of developing superior vena
cava syndrome?
A. Carotid stenosis
B. Steatosis hepatitis
C. Metastatic cancer
D. Clavicular fracture
CORRECT ANSWER C — Metastatic cancer
RATIONALE Superior vena cava syndrome occurs when the superior vena cava (SVC) is
compressed by outside structures, such as a growing tumor that impedes the
return blood flow to the heart. It is likely to occur with metastatic cancer from a
primary tumor in the upper lobe of the right lung that compresses the SVC.


4. The nurse is giving discharge instructions to a client with chronic prostatitis. What
instruction should the nurse provide the client to reduce the risk of spreading the
infection to other areas of the client's urinary tract?
A. Wear a condom when having sexual intercourse
B. Avoid consuming alcohol and caffeinated beverages
C. Empty the bladder completely with each voiding
D. Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week
CORRECT ANSWER D — Have intercourse or masturbate at least twice a week
RATIONALE The prostate is not easily penetrated by antibiotics and can serve as a reservoir for
microorganisms, which can infect other areas of the genitourinary tract. Draining
the prostate regularly through intercourse or masturbation decreases the number
of microorganisms present and reduces the risk for further infection from stored
contaminated seminal fluids.

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