ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exams 2026 (PDF) | NGN
Nursing Questions | Ati Exit Exam Prep (Latest Update) EXAM
with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Management of Care and Leadership
2. Safety and Infection Control
3. Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
4. Reduction of Risk Potential
5. Physiological Adaptation
6. Psychosocial Integrity
1. A charge nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse who is delegating tasks to assistive
personnel (AP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task delegated by the newly licensed nurse
requires intervention by the charge nurse?
A. Assisting a stable client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with
ambulation in the hallway.
B. Feeding a client who had a stroke three days ago and has mild unilateral facial weakness.
C. Measuring and recording the 24-hour urine output of a client admitted with acute kidney
injury.
D. Evaluating the swallowing ability of a client admitted with a new-onset cerebrovascular
accident prior to initial oral intake.
CORRECT ANSWER : D
, Rationale: Evaluating a client's swallowing ability requires clinical judgment and nursing
assessment, which cannot be delegated to assistive personnel. Assisting with ambulation, feeding
stable clients, and measuring urine output are appropriate tasks for APs.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following
isolation precautions should the nurse implement for this client?
A. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask worn within 3 feet of the client.
B. Contact precautions with a gown and sterile gloves worn during all client interactions.
C. Airborne precautions utilizing a negative pressure room and an N95 respirator mask for
healthcare personnel.
D. Standard precautions alone since the infection is confined to the pulmonary system.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplets nuclei requiring airborne
precautions, which include placement in a negative pressure airflow room and requiring
healthcare providers to wear fit-tested N95 or HEPA respirators. Droplet and contact
precautions are insufficient for airborne pathogens.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary
embolism. The baseline aPTT is 30 seconds. Which laboratory value indicates that the heparin
therapy is currently within the therapeutic range?
A. 30 to 40 seconds
B. 60 to 80 seconds
C. 100 to 120 seconds
D. Greater than 150 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Therapeutic anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin requires an activated
partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal baseline value. With a baseline
of 30 seconds, a therapeutic range of 60 to 80 seconds prevents clot extension without excessive
bleeding risk.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum following a normal spontaneous vaginal
delivery and notes a boggy uterus displaced to the right with a moderate amount of lochia rubra.
Which action should the nurse take first?
, A. Administer methylergonovine intramuscularly as prescribed.
B. Assist the client to empty her urinary bladder.
C. Prepare the client for immediate bimanual uterine compression.
D. Increase the rate of the intravenous lactated Ringer's infusion.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: A boggy uterus displaced to the right is most frequently caused by a distended urinary
bladder, which inhibits effective uterine contraction. Assisting the client to void resolves the
uterine displacement, allowing the myometrium to contract and reducing bleeding before
pharmacologic interventions are used.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who presents with acute mania. The
client is pacing, speaking in rapid, pressured sentences, and exhibiting grandiose delusions.
Which nursing intervention is highest priority?
A. Encourage the client to participate in competitive group games to burn off excess energy.
B. Provide a calm, low-stimulation environment with reduced noise and minimal distractions.
C. Confront the client's grandiose beliefs to reorient them to reality immediately.
D. Restrict all visitors and isolate the client in a private locked room.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Clients experiencing acute mania are highly sensitive to environmental stimuli and
easily agitated; a quiet, low-stimulation environment helps reduce overexcitation. Confronting
delusions can escalate agitation, and isolation should only be used as a last resort.
6. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has a new prescription for warfarin
following a deep vein thrombosis. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A. "I will eliminate all dark green leafy vegetables from my diet immediately."
B. "I should maintain a consistent, stable daily intake of foods containing vitamin K."
C. "I can take aspirin or ibuprofen for mild headaches while on this medication."
D. "I need to check my international normalized ratio once every year."
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Warfarin acts as a vitamin K antagonist; abrupt changes in dietary vitamin K intake
destabilize the INR. Clients should maintain a consistent daily intake rather than eliminating
vitamin K entirely. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk.
7. A nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia nervosa and has been admitted for severe
malnutrition. Which action should be included in the plan of care during initial refeeding?
A. Weigh the client weekly in regular street clothing after meals.
B. Monitor closely for symptoms of refeeding syndrome such as hypophosphatemia and
hypokalemia.
C. Allow the client complete autonomy over meal selection and portion sizes.
D. Encourage vigorous aerobic exercise immediately after eating to promote digestion.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Refeeding malnourished clients triggers rapid cellular uptake of electrolytes like
phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium, potentially causing fatal refeeding syndrome. Frequent
weights should be done daily in a hospital gown, and exercise must be restricted.
8. A nurse is caring for an infant who has congenital hypothyroidism. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect to observe during assessment?
A. Hyperactivity, tremors, and exophthalmos
B. Lethargy, a thick protruding tongue, poor muscle tone, and a hoarse cry
C. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and excessive weight loss
D. Frequent watery diarrhea and rapid linear growth
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones,
resulting in metabolic slowing manifested as lethargy, hypotonia, a large protruding tongue,
cold skin, and a hoarse cry. Hyperactivity and heat intolerance are signs of hyperthyroidism.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Jugular venous distension
B. Dependent peripheral pitting edema
Nursing Questions | Ati Exit Exam Prep (Latest Update) EXAM
with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Management of Care and Leadership
2. Safety and Infection Control
3. Pharmacological and Parenteral Therapies
4. Reduction of Risk Potential
5. Physiological Adaptation
6. Psychosocial Integrity
1. A charge nurse is evaluating a newly licensed nurse who is delegating tasks to assistive
personnel (AP) on a medical-surgical unit. Which task delegated by the newly licensed nurse
requires intervention by the charge nurse?
A. Assisting a stable client diagnosed with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease with
ambulation in the hallway.
B. Feeding a client who had a stroke three days ago and has mild unilateral facial weakness.
C. Measuring and recording the 24-hour urine output of a client admitted with acute kidney
injury.
D. Evaluating the swallowing ability of a client admitted with a new-onset cerebrovascular
accident prior to initial oral intake.
CORRECT ANSWER : D
, Rationale: Evaluating a client's swallowing ability requires clinical judgment and nursing
assessment, which cannot be delegated to assistive personnel. Assisting with ambulation, feeding
stable clients, and measuring urine output are appropriate tasks for APs.
2. A nurse is admitting a client who has active pulmonary tuberculosis. Which of the following
isolation precautions should the nurse implement for this client?
A. Droplet precautions with a surgical mask worn within 3 feet of the client.
B. Contact precautions with a gown and sterile gloves worn during all client interactions.
C. Airborne precautions utilizing a negative pressure room and an N95 respirator mask for
healthcare personnel.
D. Standard precautions alone since the infection is confined to the pulmonary system.
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplets nuclei requiring airborne
precautions, which include placement in a negative pressure airflow room and requiring
healthcare providers to wear fit-tested N95 or HEPA respirators. Droplet and contact
precautions are insufficient for airborne pathogens.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving intravenous heparin infusion for a pulmonary
embolism. The baseline aPTT is 30 seconds. Which laboratory value indicates that the heparin
therapy is currently within the therapeutic range?
A. 30 to 40 seconds
B. 60 to 80 seconds
C. 100 to 120 seconds
D. Greater than 150 seconds
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Therapeutic anticoagulation with unfractionated heparin requires an activated
partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) of 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal baseline value. With a baseline
of 30 seconds, a therapeutic range of 60 to 80 seconds prevents clot extension without excessive
bleeding risk.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who is 4 hours postpartum following a normal spontaneous vaginal
delivery and notes a boggy uterus displaced to the right with a moderate amount of lochia rubra.
Which action should the nurse take first?
, A. Administer methylergonovine intramuscularly as prescribed.
B. Assist the client to empty her urinary bladder.
C. Prepare the client for immediate bimanual uterine compression.
D. Increase the rate of the intravenous lactated Ringer's infusion.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: A boggy uterus displaced to the right is most frequently caused by a distended urinary
bladder, which inhibits effective uterine contraction. Assisting the client to void resolves the
uterine displacement, allowing the myometrium to contract and reducing bleeding before
pharmacologic interventions are used.
5. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who presents with acute mania. The
client is pacing, speaking in rapid, pressured sentences, and exhibiting grandiose delusions.
Which nursing intervention is highest priority?
A. Encourage the client to participate in competitive group games to burn off excess energy.
B. Provide a calm, low-stimulation environment with reduced noise and minimal distractions.
C. Confront the client's grandiose beliefs to reorient them to reality immediately.
D. Restrict all visitors and isolate the client in a private locked room.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Clients experiencing acute mania are highly sensitive to environmental stimuli and
easily agitated; a quiet, low-stimulation environment helps reduce overexcitation. Confronting
delusions can escalate agitation, and isolation should only be used as a last resort.
6. A nurse is reviewing discharge instructions with a client who has a new prescription for warfarin
following a deep vein thrombosis. Which statement by the client indicates an understanding of
the teaching?
A. "I will eliminate all dark green leafy vegetables from my diet immediately."
B. "I should maintain a consistent, stable daily intake of foods containing vitamin K."
C. "I can take aspirin or ibuprofen for mild headaches while on this medication."
D. "I need to check my international normalized ratio once every year."
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Warfarin acts as a vitamin K antagonist; abrupt changes in dietary vitamin K intake
destabilize the INR. Clients should maintain a consistent daily intake rather than eliminating
vitamin K entirely. NSAIDs increase bleeding risk.
7. A nurse is planning care for a client who has anorexia nervosa and has been admitted for severe
malnutrition. Which action should be included in the plan of care during initial refeeding?
A. Weigh the client weekly in regular street clothing after meals.
B. Monitor closely for symptoms of refeeding syndrome such as hypophosphatemia and
hypokalemia.
C. Allow the client complete autonomy over meal selection and portion sizes.
D. Encourage vigorous aerobic exercise immediately after eating to promote digestion.
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Refeeding malnourished clients triggers rapid cellular uptake of electrolytes like
phosphorus, potassium, and magnesium, potentially causing fatal refeeding syndrome. Frequent
weights should be done daily in a hospital gown, and exercise must be restricted.
8. A nurse is caring for an infant who has congenital hypothyroidism. Which clinical manifestation
should the nurse expect to observe during assessment?
A. Hyperactivity, tremors, and exophthalmos
B. Lethargy, a thick protruding tongue, poor muscle tone, and a hoarse cry
C. Tachycardia, heat intolerance, and excessive weight loss
D. Frequent watery diarrhea and rapid linear growth
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Congenital hypothyroidism is characterized by a deficiency of thyroid hormones,
resulting in metabolic slowing manifested as lethargy, hypotonia, a large protruding tongue,
cold skin, and a hoarse cry. Hyperactivity and heat intolerance are signs of hyperthyroidism.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has left-sided heart failure. Which clinical manifestation should
the nurse expect to find?
A. Jugular venous distension
B. Dependent peripheral pitting edema
