AAPC CPC Certification Exam Certified Professional Coder
(CPC)® Certification All 17 Knowledge Domains EXAM with
Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. 102 Medical Terminology
2. 103 Anatomy
3. 104 Coding Guidelines (ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS Level II)
4. 105 10,000 Series Surgery (Integumentary System)
5. 106 20,000 Series Surgery (Musculoskeletal System)
6. 107 30,000 Series Surgery (Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Hemic and Lymphatic Systems)
7. 108 40,000 Series Surgery (Digestive System)
8. 109 50,000 Series Surgery (Urinary, Male and Female Genital, Maternity Systems)
9. 110 60,000 Series Surgery (Nervous, Eye, Ocular Adnexa, Auditory Systems)
10. 111 Radiology Services
11. 112 Pathology and Laboratory Services
12. 113 Medicine Services
,13. 114 Evaluation and Management (E/M) Services
14. 115 Anesthesia Services
15. 116 HCPCS Level II Coding
16. 117 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
17. 118 Compliance, Regulatory Guidelines, and Coding Ethics
1. A patient presents to the outpatient clinic for a routine screening colonoscopy. During the
procedure, the gastroenterologist visualizes and removes a single benign polyp from the sigmoid
colon using a cold snare technique. How should the medical coder report this service?
A. 45380
B. 45378
C. 45385
D. 45384
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Code 45380 describes colonoscopy, flexible, proximal to splenic flexure; with biopsy,
single or multiple, which is appropriate for cold snare polyp removal. Code 45378 is a
diagnostic screening colonoscopy without intervention, 45385 is used for lesion removal via
snare technique requiring electrocautery, and 45384 represents removal by cold biopsy forceps
rather than a snare.
2. A 45-year-old female undergoes an open total abdominal hysterectomy with removal of both
ovaries and fallopian tubes. The pathology report confirms benign leiomyomas of the uterus.
What CPT code and primary ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?
A. 58150, D25.9
B. 58150, D25.1
C. 58260, D25.9
D. 58180, D25.9
, CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Code 58150 represents total abdominal hysterectomy (corpus and cervix), with or
without removal of tube(s), with or without removal of ovary(s). D25.1 specifies intramural
leiomyoma of uterus, aligning precisely with typical benign uterine fibroid pathology, whereas
D25.9 is unspecified. Code 58260 is for a vaginal approach, and 58180 is for a supracervical
hysterectomy.
3. A patient undergoes an extensive debridement of a chronic diabetic foot ulcer exposing
underlying subcutaneous tissue and bone on the right heel. The surgeon excises devitalized skin,
subcutaneous tissue, and infected cortical bone. The surface area measured 25 sq cm. What CPT
code should be reported?
A. 11042
B. 11043
C. 11044
D. 11055
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Code 11044 is designated for debridement, bone (includes epidermis, dermis,
subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and/or bone), when the surface area is 20 sq cm or less, but
additional code 11047 would be added for each additional 20 sq cm, making 11044 the base
code for bone debridement exceeding 20 sq cm. Codes 11042 and 11043 are for lesser depths
(subcutaneous tissue and muscle/fascia), and 11055 is for trimming of hyperkeratotic lesions.
4. A patient is diagnosed with acute respiratory failure complicating severe community-acquired
pneumonia due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. The patient is intubated and placed on mechanical
ventilation. What sequence of ICD-10-CM codes is correct?
A. J96.00, J13, Z99.81
B. J13, J96.01, Z99.81
C. J96.90, J18.9
D. J13, J96.90
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: According to ICD-10-CM official coding guidelines for respiratory failure, when
acute respiratory failure is present upon admission alongside an infection, the underlying
infection (Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia, J13) is sequenced first, followed by acute
, respiratory failure with hypoxia or hypercapnia (J96.01), and a status code for dependence on a
respirator (Z99.81) if applicable.
5. A patient undergoes an arthroscopic surgical repair of a torn rotator cuff (full-thickness tear) of
the right shoulder. What CPT code correctly identifies this procedure?
A. 29827
B. 29827
C. 29823
D. 29822
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Code 29827 represents arthroscopy, surgical, shoulder; with rotator cuff repair.
Code 29823 is for arthroscopic extensive debridement, 29822 is for limited debridement, and the
prompt asks to identify the correct code for rotator cuff repair.
6. A pathology laboratory performs a complex level VI surgical pathology examination on a radical
prostatectomy specimen. What CPT code should the independent laboratory report?
A. 88305
B. 88307
C. 88309
D. 88304
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: CPT code 88309 is the correct level for surgical pathology, gross and microscopic
examination of a prostate, radical resection. Code 88305 is for routine prostate biopsies or less
complex specimens, 88307 covers moderately complex resections, and 88304 represents lower-
complexity level III specimens.
7. A Medicare beneficiary receives a routine screening mammography (bilateral). The patient has
no signs or symptoms of breast disease. What HCPCS Level II code and primary ICD-10-CM
code should be reported on the claim form?
A. G0202, Z12.31
B. G0202, Z12.31
(CPC)® Certification All 17 Knowledge Domains EXAM with
Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale Updated 2026
A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. 102 Medical Terminology
2. 103 Anatomy
3. 104 Coding Guidelines (ICD-10-CM, CPT, HCPCS Level II)
4. 105 10,000 Series Surgery (Integumentary System)
5. 106 20,000 Series Surgery (Musculoskeletal System)
6. 107 30,000 Series Surgery (Respiratory, Cardiovascular, Hemic and Lymphatic Systems)
7. 108 40,000 Series Surgery (Digestive System)
8. 109 50,000 Series Surgery (Urinary, Male and Female Genital, Maternity Systems)
9. 110 60,000 Series Surgery (Nervous, Eye, Ocular Adnexa, Auditory Systems)
10. 111 Radiology Services
11. 112 Pathology and Laboratory Services
12. 113 Medicine Services
,13. 114 Evaluation and Management (E/M) Services
14. 115 Anesthesia Services
15. 116 HCPCS Level II Coding
16. 117 ICD-10-CM Diagnosis Coding
17. 118 Compliance, Regulatory Guidelines, and Coding Ethics
1. A patient presents to the outpatient clinic for a routine screening colonoscopy. During the
procedure, the gastroenterologist visualizes and removes a single benign polyp from the sigmoid
colon using a cold snare technique. How should the medical coder report this service?
A. 45380
B. 45378
C. 45385
D. 45384
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Code 45380 describes colonoscopy, flexible, proximal to splenic flexure; with biopsy,
single or multiple, which is appropriate for cold snare polyp removal. Code 45378 is a
diagnostic screening colonoscopy without intervention, 45385 is used for lesion removal via
snare technique requiring electrocautery, and 45384 represents removal by cold biopsy forceps
rather than a snare.
2. A 45-year-old female undergoes an open total abdominal hysterectomy with removal of both
ovaries and fallopian tubes. The pathology report confirms benign leiomyomas of the uterus.
What CPT code and primary ICD-10-CM code should be assigned?
A. 58150, D25.9
B. 58150, D25.1
C. 58260, D25.9
D. 58180, D25.9
, CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Code 58150 represents total abdominal hysterectomy (corpus and cervix), with or
without removal of tube(s), with or without removal of ovary(s). D25.1 specifies intramural
leiomyoma of uterus, aligning precisely with typical benign uterine fibroid pathology, whereas
D25.9 is unspecified. Code 58260 is for a vaginal approach, and 58180 is for a supracervical
hysterectomy.
3. A patient undergoes an extensive debridement of a chronic diabetic foot ulcer exposing
underlying subcutaneous tissue and bone on the right heel. The surgeon excises devitalized skin,
subcutaneous tissue, and infected cortical bone. The surface area measured 25 sq cm. What CPT
code should be reported?
A. 11042
B. 11043
C. 11044
D. 11055
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: Code 11044 is designated for debridement, bone (includes epidermis, dermis,
subcutaneous tissue, muscle, and/or bone), when the surface area is 20 sq cm or less, but
additional code 11047 would be added for each additional 20 sq cm, making 11044 the base
code for bone debridement exceeding 20 sq cm. Codes 11042 and 11043 are for lesser depths
(subcutaneous tissue and muscle/fascia), and 11055 is for trimming of hyperkeratotic lesions.
4. A patient is diagnosed with acute respiratory failure complicating severe community-acquired
pneumonia due to Streptococcus pneumoniae. The patient is intubated and placed on mechanical
ventilation. What sequence of ICD-10-CM codes is correct?
A. J96.00, J13, Z99.81
B. J13, J96.01, Z99.81
C. J96.90, J18.9
D. J13, J96.90
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: According to ICD-10-CM official coding guidelines for respiratory failure, when
acute respiratory failure is present upon admission alongside an infection, the underlying
infection (Streptococcus pneumoniae pneumonia, J13) is sequenced first, followed by acute
, respiratory failure with hypoxia or hypercapnia (J96.01), and a status code for dependence on a
respirator (Z99.81) if applicable.
5. A patient undergoes an arthroscopic surgical repair of a torn rotator cuff (full-thickness tear) of
the right shoulder. What CPT code correctly identifies this procedure?
A. 29827
B. 29827
C. 29823
D. 29822
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Code 29827 represents arthroscopy, surgical, shoulder; with rotator cuff repair.
Code 29823 is for arthroscopic extensive debridement, 29822 is for limited debridement, and the
prompt asks to identify the correct code for rotator cuff repair.
6. A pathology laboratory performs a complex level VI surgical pathology examination on a radical
prostatectomy specimen. What CPT code should the independent laboratory report?
A. 88305
B. 88307
C. 88309
D. 88304
CORRECT ANSWER : C
Rationale: CPT code 88309 is the correct level for surgical pathology, gross and microscopic
examination of a prostate, radical resection. Code 88305 is for routine prostate biopsies or less
complex specimens, 88307 covers moderately complex resections, and 88304 represents lower-
complexity level III specimens.
7. A Medicare beneficiary receives a routine screening mammography (bilateral). The patient has
no signs or symptoms of breast disease. What HCPCS Level II code and primary ICD-10-CM
code should be reported on the claim form?
A. G0202, Z12.31
B. G0202, Z12.31
