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HESI Fundamentals Exam 200 Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download PDF Already Graded A+

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HESI Fundamentals Exam 200 Questions and Correct Answers (Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant Download PDF Already Graded A+

Institution
HESI Fundamentals
Course
HESI Fundamentals

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HESI Fundamentals Exam 200 Questions and Correct Answers
(Verified Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download PDF Already Graded A+




Question 1
A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery reports
severe pain. The nurse notes that the client's vital signs are: blood
pressure 142/88 mmHg, heart rate 102 beats/min, respiratory rate 24
breaths/min, and temperature 98.6°F. Which nursing action should be
taken first?
A) Administer prescribed analgesic medication
B) Notify the healthcare provider immediately
C) Assess the surgical incision site for complications
D) Reposition the client to enhance comfort
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The priority action is to administer the prescribed analgesic
medication to address the client's severe pain. Pain management is
essential for postoperative recovery, and severe pain can lead to
complications such as increased stress response, delayed healing, and
decreased mobility. The vital signs indicate pain-related sympathetic
stimulation, and addressing the pain directly is the most appropriate
initial intervention. Notifying the healthcare provider, assessing the
incision site, or repositioning the client would be secondary actions after
addressing the immediate pain concern.

,Question 2
A client is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The IV tubing
delivers 15 drops/mL. At how many drops per minute should the nurse
regulate the infusion?
A) 15 drops/minute
B) 21 drops/minute
C) 31 drops/minute
D) 41 drops/minute
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: To calculate the drip rate, multiply the hourly rate by the
drop factor, then divide by 60 minutes. Calculation: 125 mL/hour × 15
drops/mL = 1875 drops/hour. Divide by 60 minutes: 1875/60 = 31.25
drops/minute. Round to 31 drops/minute for accurate regulation. This
calculation ensures the client receives the prescribed fluid volume over
the appropriate time period to maintain hydration and medication
delivery.


Question 3
A nurse is caring for a client with a nasogastric tube attached to low
intermittent suction. Which assessment finding indicates that the tube
is functioning properly?
A) The client reports nausea
B) The drainage is bright red
C) The drainage is greenish-yellow with small particles
D) The abdomen is distended and firm

,Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Greenish-yellow drainage with small particles indicates
normal gastric contents and proper functioning of the nasogastric tube.
This appearance is consistent with stomach secretions, bile, and
partially digested food. Nausea, bright red drainage, or abdominal
distension would indicate potential complications such as obstruction,
bleeding, or tube malfunction requiring immediate nursing intervention
and reassessment.


Question 4
A client with diabetes mellitus is scheduled for surgery. The nurse
reviews the morning laboratory results and notes a blood glucose level
of 250 mg/dL. Which nursing action is most appropriate?
A) Administer insulin as prescribed
B) Hold the client's morning meal
C) Notify the healthcare provider
D) Encourage the client to drink orange juice
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Administering insulin as prescribed is the most appropriate
action for a blood glucose level of 250 mg/dL in a client scheduled for
surgery. Elevated blood glucose levels can impair wound healing and
increase infection risk. The nurse should follow the prescribed sliding
scale or scheduled insulin regimen to manage hyperglycemia before
surgery. Notifying the healthcare provider may be necessary but should
occur after implementing the prescribed insulin therapy.

, Question 5
A nurse is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to an adult
client. Which site is preferred for this administration?
A) Deltoid muscle
B) Dorsogluteal muscle
C) Ventrogluteal muscle
D) Rectus femoris muscle
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The ventrogluteal site is preferred for intramuscular
injections in adults due to its location away from major nerves and
blood vessels. This site provides a large muscle mass with minimal risk
of injury to the sciatic nerve or other structures. The dorsogluteal site is
no longer recommended due to proximity to the sciatic nerve. The
deltoid is appropriate for small volumes, and the rectus femoris is
typically used in pediatric populations.


Question 6
A client is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food selection by the
client indicates understanding of this dietary restriction?
A) Canned vegetable soup
B) Fresh grilled chicken breast
C) Salted pretzels
D) Processed cheese slices
Correct Answer: B

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