Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest 2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest
2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV /
MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
75 75 80% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS PASSING SCORE EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Complex Respiratory Disorders • Multi-System Trauma & Shock
• Advanced Cardiovascular Care • Renal & Electrolyte Imbalances
• Neurological Emergencies • Oncology & Immunocompromise
• Endocrine Crisis Management • Palliative & Ethical Care
COVER PAGE - 1
,Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest 2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
CONFIDENTIAL EXAM MATERIAL
SECTION 1: COMPLEX RESPIRATORY DISORDERS
Q1.
A 68-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history is admitted with acute onset of dyspnea, tachypnea,
and diminished breath sounds on the right side. Chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax with
tracheal deviation to the left. The patient is hypotensive with a systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg. Which
immediate intervention is the priority?
A. Insert a large-bore needle in the second intercostal space midclavicular line
B. Administer high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Obtain a CT scan of the chest
D. Start a heparin infusion for suspected pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax with hemodynamic compromise requires immediate needle decompression in the
second intercostal space midclavicular line. High-flow oxygen alone will not relieve the tension physiology.
Q2.
A 55-year-old female with COPD is admitted with an exacerbation. Her arterial blood gas shows pH 7.32,
PaCO2 58 mmHg, PaO2 62 mmHg, and HCO3 30 mEq/L on room air. The patient is alert and oriented. Which
nursing intervention is most appropriate for this acid-base disturbance?
A. Administer high-dose sodium bicarbonate intravenously
B. Initiate low-flow oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation
D. Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min to correct hypoxemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is compensated respiratory acidosis from COPD. Low-flow oxygen (1-2 L/min) prevents suppression of the
hypoxic drive. High-flow oxygen or bicarbonate would worsen CO2 retention.
Q3.
A 72-year-old male post-operative day 3 after total hip replacement suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain,
tachycardia, and dyspnea. His SpO2 drops from 96% to 86% on room air. Which diagnostic test is the gold
standard for confirming the suspected condition?
A. D-dimer assay
B. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
C. Chest X-ray
D. Arterial blood gas analysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CTPA is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism. D-dimer is sensitive but nonspecific. Chest
X-ray is often normal in PE. ABG may show hypoxemia but does not confirm the diagnosis.
, Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest 2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
CONFIDENTIAL EXAM MATERIAL
Q4.
A 45-year-old female with asthma presents to the emergency department with severe wheezing, inability to
speak in full sentences, and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. Peak expiratory flow is 35% of
predicted. Which medication should be administered first?
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (albuterol)
C. Intravenous magnesium sulfate
D. Subcutaneous epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists are the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbation. Oral steroids and
IV magnesium are adjuncts. Epinephrine is reserved for anaphylaxis, not asthma.
Q5.
A 60-year-old male with a history of heart failure develops acute pulmonary edema. He is sitting upright,
diaphoretic, and has pink frothy sputum. His blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. Which medication should be
administered immediately to reduce preload?
A. Dopamine infusion
B. Nitroglycerin sublingual
C. Furosemide intravenous push
D. Norepinephrine infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IV furosemide reduces preload through diuresis and venodilation, making it the priority in acute pulmonary
edema. Nitroglycerin also reduces preload but furosemide addresses fluid overload directly.
Q6.
A 38-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Sputum culture grows
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which class of antibiotics is the cornerstone of treatment for this organism in cystic
fibrosis?
A. Macrolides
B. Beta-lactams with anti-pseudomonal activity
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anti-pseudomonal beta-lactams such as piperacillin-tazobactam or ceftazidime are cornerstone therapy for
Pseudomonas in CF. Aminoglycosides are often used adjunctively but not as monotherapy.
OBJECTIVE ASSESSMENT - EXAM
Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest
2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV /
MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
75 75 80% 2026/2027
QUESTIONS VERIFIED ANSWERS PASSING SCORE EDITION
TOPICS COVERED
• Complex Respiratory Disorders • Multi-System Trauma & Shock
• Advanced Cardiovascular Care • Renal & Electrolyte Imbalances
• Neurological Emergencies • Oncology & Immunocompromise
• Endocrine Crisis Management • Palliative & Ethical Care
COVER PAGE - 1
,Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest 2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
CONFIDENTIAL EXAM MATERIAL
SECTION 1: COMPLEX RESPIRATORY DISORDERS
Q1.
A 68-year-old male with a 40 pack-year smoking history is admitted with acute onset of dyspnea, tachypnea,
and diminished breath sounds on the right side. Chest X-ray reveals a large right-sided pneumothorax with
tracheal deviation to the left. The patient is hypotensive with a systolic blood pressure of 82 mmHg. Which
immediate intervention is the priority?
A. Insert a large-bore needle in the second intercostal space midclavicular line
B. Administer high-flow oxygen via nasal cannula
C. Obtain a CT scan of the chest
D. Start a heparin infusion for suspected pulmonary embolism
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: A tension pneumothorax with hemodynamic compromise requires immediate needle decompression in the
second intercostal space midclavicular line. High-flow oxygen alone will not relieve the tension physiology.
Q2.
A 55-year-old female with COPD is admitted with an exacerbation. Her arterial blood gas shows pH 7.32,
PaCO2 58 mmHg, PaO2 62 mmHg, and HCO3 30 mEq/L on room air. The patient is alert and oriented. Which
nursing intervention is most appropriate for this acid-base disturbance?
A. Administer high-dose sodium bicarbonate intravenously
B. Initiate low-flow oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula
C. Prepare for immediate endotracheal intubation
D. Increase oxygen flow to 6 L/min to correct hypoxemia
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: This is compensated respiratory acidosis from COPD. Low-flow oxygen (1-2 L/min) prevents suppression of the
hypoxic drive. High-flow oxygen or bicarbonate would worsen CO2 retention.
Q3.
A 72-year-old male post-operative day 3 after total hip replacement suddenly develops pleuritic chest pain,
tachycardia, and dyspnea. His SpO2 drops from 96% to 86% on room air. Which diagnostic test is the gold
standard for confirming the suspected condition?
A. D-dimer assay
B. CT pulmonary angiography (CTPA)
C. Chest X-ray
D. Arterial blood gas analysis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: CTPA is the gold standard for diagnosing pulmonary embolism. D-dimer is sensitive but nonspecific. Chest
X-ray is often normal in PE. ABG may show hypoxemia but does not confirm the diagnosis.
, Exam 3 - NUR2755 / NUR 2755 (Latest 2026/2027): Multidimensional Care IV / MDC 4 - Rasmussen 2026/2027
CONFIDENTIAL EXAM MATERIAL
Q4.
A 45-year-old female with asthma presents to the emergency department with severe wheezing, inability to
speak in full sentences, and a respiratory rate of 32 breaths per minute. Peak expiratory flow is 35% of
predicted. Which medication should be administered first?
A. Oral corticosteroids
B. Inhaled short-acting beta-agonist (albuterol)
C. Intravenous magnesium sulfate
D. Subcutaneous epinephrine
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Inhaled short-acting beta-agonists are the first-line treatment for acute asthma exacerbation. Oral steroids and
IV magnesium are adjuncts. Epinephrine is reserved for anaphylaxis, not asthma.
Q5.
A 60-year-old male with a history of heart failure develops acute pulmonary edema. He is sitting upright,
diaphoretic, and has pink frothy sputum. His blood pressure is 190/110 mmHg. Which medication should be
administered immediately to reduce preload?
A. Dopamine infusion
B. Nitroglycerin sublingual
C. Furosemide intravenous push
D. Norepinephrine infusion
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: IV furosemide reduces preload through diuresis and venodilation, making it the priority in acute pulmonary
edema. Nitroglycerin also reduces preload but furosemide addresses fluid overload directly.
Q6.
A 38-year-old female with cystic fibrosis is admitted with a pulmonary exacerbation. Sputum culture grows
Pseudomonas aeruginosa. Which class of antibiotics is the cornerstone of treatment for this organism in cystic
fibrosis?
A. Macrolides
B. Beta-lactams with anti-pseudomonal activity
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Aminoglycosides
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Anti-pseudomonal beta-lactams such as piperacillin-tazobactam or ceftazidime are cornerstone therapy for
Pseudomonas in CF. Aminoglycosides are often used adjunctively but not as monotherapy.
