NR 668 CEA Final Exam Psychiatric-Mental Health Capstone
Practicum & Intensive | Chamberlain University (2026)
LATEST EDITION WITH CORRECT ANSWERS WELL VERIED AND
IN –DEPTH RFATIONALES!
Section 1: Policy, Ethics, and Legal Issues (Questions 1-35)
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the leadership competency for APRNs?
A. Modifying the treatment plan based on the patient's needs
B. Developing an age-appropriate treatment plan
C. Participating in a community-focused program that promotes mental health and reduces the risk of
mental health problems
D. Evaluating the appropriate use of seclusion
ANSWER: C. Participating in a community-focused program that promotes mental health and reduces
the
risk of mental health problems
Rationale: Leadership competency for APRNs involves community engagement and population health
initiatives. APRN leadership extends beyond direct patient care to include advocacy, policy
development, and community-based interventions .
2. Which of the following allows the PMHNP to practice in a state?
A. Graduation
B. Licensure
C. Credentialing
D. Certification
ANSWER: B. Licensure
Rationale: Licensure is the state-level authorization that grants legal permission to practice as a nurse
practitioner. Certification (D) is a national credential demonstrating competency, but licensure is what
legally permits practice in a specific state .
,3. What document should be consulted to determine if the PMHNP can legally treat psychiatric patients
across the life span?
A. The hospital bylaws
B. The PMHNP scope of practice
C. The state Nurse Practice Act
D. The APRN Consensus Model
ANSWER: C. The state Nurse Practice Act
Rationale: The Nurse Practice Act in each state defines the legal scope of practice, including age
populations a PMHNP is authorized to treat. The NP cannot practice outside the scope defined by this
act, regardless of supervising physician agreements .
4. The Board of Nursing (BON) is responsible for which of the following?
A. Code of ethics and standards of practice
B. State regulations, scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and the Nurse Practice Act
C. Nursing program accreditation
D. Certifying standards in the profession
ANSWER: B. State regulations, scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and the Nurse Practice Act
Rationale: The Board of Nursing is the state regulatory body that governs nursing practice, including
scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and enforcement of the Nurse Practice Act. The ANA (A)
provides ethical standards; the NLNAC and CCNE (C) accredit programs; the ANCC (D) provides
certification .
5. Which of the following is an example of universal prevention?
A. Stress management classes for at-risk populations
B. Screening for early identification of mental health conditions
C. Childhood immunizations and seatbelt laws
D. Rehabilitation and social skills training
ANSWER: C. Childhood immunizations and seatbelt laws
Rationale: Universal prevention targets the entire population without regard to risk factors. Examples
include childhood immunizations, seatbelt laws, and healthcare access. Selective prevention (A) targets
at-risk groups; secondary prevention (B) involves early screening; tertiary prevention (D) prevents
,recurrence and disability .
6. Which type of crisis results from unexpected events that disturb one's psychological well-being?
A. Maturational crisis
B. Situational crisis
C. Adventitious crisis
D. Developmental crisis
ANSWER: B. Situational crisis
Rationale: Situational crises arise from unexpected, sudden events such as job loss, unexpected death,
or serious illness. Maturational crises (A) are normal developmental transitions. Adventitious crises (C)
include social crises and disasters .
7. The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 requires healthcare providers to:
A. Obtain permission before conducting a healthcare intervention
B. Inform patients of their rights and provide information on advance directives at the time of admission
C. Ensure patients are fully aware of billing charges
D. Obtain court-appointed guardians for patients lacking capacity
ANSWER: B. Inform patients of their rights and provide information on advance directives at the time of
admission
Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires healthcare facilities to inform patients of their
rights regarding healthcare decisions and inquire about advance directives at admission. It does not
require obtaining guardians or ensure billing transparency .
8. A patient who is refusing psychiatric treatment has their case adjudicated. The judge orders
treatment over objection. Which ethical principle is being overridden?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Autonomy
ANSWER: D. Autonomy
Rationale: When a court orders treatment over objection, the principle of autonomy (the patient's right
to self-determination) is overridden. This is done under the principles of beneficence (doing good) and
, nonmaleficence (preventing harm) when the patient poses a danger to self or others .
9. Which ethical decision-making approach judges actions based on their consequences?
A. Virtue ethics
B. Deontological theory
C. Teleological theory
D. Justice principle
ANSWER: C. Teleological theory
Rationale: Teleological ethics judges the morality of an action based on its outcomes or consequences.
Deontological theory (B) judges actions based on duties and rules regardless of consequences; virtue
ethics (A) focuses on character .
10. Which of the following does NOT have to follow HIPAA privacy and security rules?
A. Healthcare providers
B. Health plans
C. Employers
D. Healthcare clearinghouses
ANSWER: C. Employers
Rationale: Employers are not considered covered entities under HIPAA unless they are also providing
healthcare services. Law enforcement, life insurers, workers' compensation carriers, schools, and state
agencies are also exceptions to HIPAA requirements .
11. The PMHNP is working with a nonprofit organization to implement a public health campaign aimed
at reducing the stigma of mental illness. Which role of the PMHNP best describes this activity?
A. Advocate
B. Educator
C. Policy maker
D. Consultant
ANSWER: A. Advocate
Rationale: Advocacy involves promoting policies and programs that benefit patients and communities. A
public health campaign to reduce stigma is an advocacy role. While some education is involved,
advocacy is the broader role description .
Practicum & Intensive | Chamberlain University (2026)
LATEST EDITION WITH CORRECT ANSWERS WELL VERIED AND
IN –DEPTH RFATIONALES!
Section 1: Policy, Ethics, and Legal Issues (Questions 1-35)
1. Which of the following is characteristic of the leadership competency for APRNs?
A. Modifying the treatment plan based on the patient's needs
B. Developing an age-appropriate treatment plan
C. Participating in a community-focused program that promotes mental health and reduces the risk of
mental health problems
D. Evaluating the appropriate use of seclusion
ANSWER: C. Participating in a community-focused program that promotes mental health and reduces
the
risk of mental health problems
Rationale: Leadership competency for APRNs involves community engagement and population health
initiatives. APRN leadership extends beyond direct patient care to include advocacy, policy
development, and community-based interventions .
2. Which of the following allows the PMHNP to practice in a state?
A. Graduation
B. Licensure
C. Credentialing
D. Certification
ANSWER: B. Licensure
Rationale: Licensure is the state-level authorization that grants legal permission to practice as a nurse
practitioner. Certification (D) is a national credential demonstrating competency, but licensure is what
legally permits practice in a specific state .
,3. What document should be consulted to determine if the PMHNP can legally treat psychiatric patients
across the life span?
A. The hospital bylaws
B. The PMHNP scope of practice
C. The state Nurse Practice Act
D. The APRN Consensus Model
ANSWER: C. The state Nurse Practice Act
Rationale: The Nurse Practice Act in each state defines the legal scope of practice, including age
populations a PMHNP is authorized to treat. The NP cannot practice outside the scope defined by this
act, regardless of supervising physician agreements .
4. The Board of Nursing (BON) is responsible for which of the following?
A. Code of ethics and standards of practice
B. State regulations, scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and the Nurse Practice Act
C. Nursing program accreditation
D. Certifying standards in the profession
ANSWER: B. State regulations, scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and the Nurse Practice Act
Rationale: The Board of Nursing is the state regulatory body that governs nursing practice, including
scope of practice, prescriptive authority, and enforcement of the Nurse Practice Act. The ANA (A)
provides ethical standards; the NLNAC and CCNE (C) accredit programs; the ANCC (D) provides
certification .
5. Which of the following is an example of universal prevention?
A. Stress management classes for at-risk populations
B. Screening for early identification of mental health conditions
C. Childhood immunizations and seatbelt laws
D. Rehabilitation and social skills training
ANSWER: C. Childhood immunizations and seatbelt laws
Rationale: Universal prevention targets the entire population without regard to risk factors. Examples
include childhood immunizations, seatbelt laws, and healthcare access. Selective prevention (A) targets
at-risk groups; secondary prevention (B) involves early screening; tertiary prevention (D) prevents
,recurrence and disability .
6. Which type of crisis results from unexpected events that disturb one's psychological well-being?
A. Maturational crisis
B. Situational crisis
C. Adventitious crisis
D. Developmental crisis
ANSWER: B. Situational crisis
Rationale: Situational crises arise from unexpected, sudden events such as job loss, unexpected death,
or serious illness. Maturational crises (A) are normal developmental transitions. Adventitious crises (C)
include social crises and disasters .
7. The Patient Self-Determination Act of 1990 requires healthcare providers to:
A. Obtain permission before conducting a healthcare intervention
B. Inform patients of their rights and provide information on advance directives at the time of admission
C. Ensure patients are fully aware of billing charges
D. Obtain court-appointed guardians for patients lacking capacity
ANSWER: B. Inform patients of their rights and provide information on advance directives at the time of
admission
Rationale: The Patient Self-Determination Act requires healthcare facilities to inform patients of their
rights regarding healthcare decisions and inquire about advance directives at admission. It does not
require obtaining guardians or ensure billing transparency .
8. A patient who is refusing psychiatric treatment has their case adjudicated. The judge orders
treatment over objection. Which ethical principle is being overridden?
A. Justice
B. Beneficence
C. Nonmaleficence
D. Autonomy
ANSWER: D. Autonomy
Rationale: When a court orders treatment over objection, the principle of autonomy (the patient's right
to self-determination) is overridden. This is done under the principles of beneficence (doing good) and
, nonmaleficence (preventing harm) when the patient poses a danger to self or others .
9. Which ethical decision-making approach judges actions based on their consequences?
A. Virtue ethics
B. Deontological theory
C. Teleological theory
D. Justice principle
ANSWER: C. Teleological theory
Rationale: Teleological ethics judges the morality of an action based on its outcomes or consequences.
Deontological theory (B) judges actions based on duties and rules regardless of consequences; virtue
ethics (A) focuses on character .
10. Which of the following does NOT have to follow HIPAA privacy and security rules?
A. Healthcare providers
B. Health plans
C. Employers
D. Healthcare clearinghouses
ANSWER: C. Employers
Rationale: Employers are not considered covered entities under HIPAA unless they are also providing
healthcare services. Law enforcement, life insurers, workers' compensation carriers, schools, and state
agencies are also exceptions to HIPAA requirements .
11. The PMHNP is working with a nonprofit organization to implement a public health campaign aimed
at reducing the stigma of mental illness. Which role of the PMHNP best describes this activity?
A. Advocate
B. Educator
C. Policy maker
D. Consultant
ANSWER: A. Advocate
Rationale: Advocacy involves promoting policies and programs that benefit patients and communities. A
public health campaign to reduce stigma is an advocacy role. While some education is involved,
advocacy is the broader role description .
