Advanced Pharmacology for Advanced Practice Nurses
University of South Alabama College of Nursing
SECTION A: PHARMACOKINETICS AND PHARMACODYNAMICS (Questions 1-15)
Question 1
A patient with renal impairment is prescribed a medication that is primarily excreted
renaly. The nurse practitioner anticipates which pharmacokinetic change?
A) Increased drug absorption
B) Decreased drug distribution
C) Prolonged drug half-life
D) Increased protein binding
Correct Answer: C) Prolonged drug half-life
Rationale: In renal impairment, drug excretion is reduced, leading to a prolonged half-
life and increased risk of drug accumulation and toxicity. Dosage adjustment is often
required. Absorption and distribution are not directly affected by renal function, and
protein binding may actually decrease due to hypoalbuminemia commonly seen in renal
disease.
,Question 2
A drug has a half-life of 4 hours. Approximately how long will it take for the drug to
reach steady-state concentration?
A) 8 hours
B) 12 hours
C) 20 hours
D) 40 hours
Correct Answer: C) 20 hours
Rationale: Steady-state is reached after approximately 4-5 half-lives. With a half-life of 4
hours, steady-state would be achieved in 16-20 hours (4 × 4 = 16 hours to 5 × 4 = 20
hours). The 20-hour option is the closest correct approximation.
Question 3
Which of the following drug classes primarily acts by binding to intracellular receptors?
A) Beta-blockers
B) Corticosteroids
,C) Opioids
D) Insulin
Correct Answer: B) Corticosteroids
Rationale: Corticosteroids are lipophilic and cross the cell membrane to bind to
intracellular receptors, modulating gene transcription. Beta-blockers, opioids, and
insulin bind to cell surface receptors (G-protein coupled receptors, opioid receptors,
and tyrosine kinase receptors, respectively).
Question 4
A patient is prescribed a drug that undergoes extensive first-pass metabolism. Which
route of administration would best avoid this effect?
A) Oral
B) Sublingual
C) Intravenous
D) Intramuscular
Correct Answer: B) Sublingual
Rationale: Sublingual administration bypasses first-pass metabolism in the liver
because the drug is absorbed directly into systemic circulation via the sublingual
, mucosa. Intravenous also bypasses first-pass metabolism, but sublingual is the most
appropriate answer as it specifically avoids the hepatic portal system while being non-
invasive.
Question 5
The volume of distribution (Vd) of a drug is defined as:
A) The amount of drug in the body divided by the plasma concentration
B) The rate at which the drug is eliminated from the body
C) The time required for the drug concentration to decrease by 50%
D) The percentage of drug bound to plasma proteins
Correct Answer: A) The amount of drug in the body divided by the plasma concentration
Rationale: Volume of distribution (Vd) = Amount of drug in body ÷ Plasma concentration.
A large Vd indicates extensive tissue binding. Option B describes clearance, Option C
describes half-life, and Option D describes protein binding.
Question 6
A drug with a narrow therapeutic index: