NR 302 Health Assessment Final Exam Prep Document |
2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NR 302 Health Assessment Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified, exam-style questions for the
NR 302 Health Assessment final exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale and
distractor analysis to reinforce key concepts. Designed to mirror the actual exam format, this resource
ensures thorough coverage of all major content areas. With a pass guarantee and A+ grading, it is an
essential tool for nursing students seeking to excel in health assessment.
Abstract:
The NR 302 Health Assessment Final Exam Preparation Document is a meticulously curated collection of 250
exam-style questions designed to simulate the actual final examination. Each question is verified for accuracy and
aligned with the latest 2026/2027 course objectives. The document covers essential topics including health history
taking, physical examination techniques, and systematic assessment of all major body systems. Special emphasis is
placed on developmental variations, cultural competence, and documentation standards. Detailed rationales
explain correct answers and analyze common distractors, fostering deep understanding and clinical judgment. This
resource is ideal for nursing students aiming for a top grade, as it provides comprehensive coverage and rigorous
practice. The content reflects current best practices in health assessment and prepares students for both the exam
and real-world clinical application.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History & Interview 1-40 Communication techniques, health history 16%
components, cultural considerations,
developmental variations
Physical Examination 41-80 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 16%
Techniques auscultation, equipment use, infection
control
Cardiovascular & Peripheral 81-110 Heart sounds, pulses, jugular venous 12%
Vascular pressure, peripheral edema, vascular
assessment
Respiratory System 111-140 Breath sounds, chest inspection, percussion, 12%
tactile fremitus, respiratory patterns
Neurological System 141-170 Cranial nerves, motor/sensory function, 12%
reflexes, mental status, coordination
Abdominal & Gastrointestinal 171-200 Abdominal inspection, auscultation, 12%
percussion, palpation, liver/spleen
assessment
Musculoskeletal & 201-230 Joint range of motion, muscle strength, skin 12%
Integumentary lesions, pressure ulcers, gait assessment
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat 231-250 Vision and hearing tests, otoscopic exam, 8%
(HEENT) oral cavity, thyroid assessment, lymph nodes
Page 1
,Q1. A clinician is assessing a patient who presents with acute onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea,
and a dry cough. On auscultation, a high-pitched, scratching, superficial sound is heard that is not
cleared by coughing. The sound is best heard at the left lower sternal border during expiration.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
A. Pleural friction rub due to inflammation of the pleural layers
B. Pericardial friction rub due to inflammation of the pericardium
C. Fine crackles due to interstitial pulmonary edema
D. Wheezing due to bronchospasm
Correct Answer: B. Pericardial friction rub due to inflammation of the pericardium
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching, grating sound heard best at the left
lower sternal border, often in expiration, and is not cleared by coughing. It indicates pericarditis. A
pleural friction rub is more typically heard over the lateral chest and may change with breathing but is
not specifically located at the left lower sternal border. Crackles and wheezing are associated with
different pathologies.
Why Wrong:
A - A pleural friction rub is typically heard over the lateral chest and may be associated with
pleuritic pain, but the location and quality described here are classic for pericardial rub.
C - Fine crackles are discontinuous, non-musical sounds heard in pulmonary edema, not a
high-pitched scratchy sound.
D - Wheezing is a continuous musical sound due to airway narrowing, not a scratching sound.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 9.
Q2. During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse palpates a thrill at the left lower sternal border.
Which of the following valvular lesions is most consistent with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: C. Ventricular septal defect
Rationale: A thrill is a palpable vibration caused by turbulent blood flow. A thrill at the left lower sternal
border (LLSB) is characteristic of a ventricular septal defect (VSD), where blood shunts from the left to
the right ventricle. Mitral stenosis thrill is at the apex, aortic stenosis at the right upper sternal border,
and tricuspid regurgitation typically produces a thrill at the LLSB only if severe, but VSD is more classic.
Why Wrong:
A - Mitral stenosis thrill is best palpated at the apical area, not at the left lower sternal border.
B - Aortic stenosis thrill is at the right upper sternal border or carotid arteries.
D - Tricuspid regurgitation may produce a thrill at the LLSB, but it is less common and usually
associated with other findings; VSD is more characteristic.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 11.
Page 2
,Q3. When assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse measures the
circumference of both lower extremities. Which of the following findings is most indicative of DVT?
A. A difference of 0.5 cm between calves
B. A difference of 2 cm between calves
C. A difference of 1 cm between thighs
D. A difference of 0.5 cm between thighs
Correct Answer: B. A difference of 2 cm between calves
Rationale: In DVT, a difference in calf circumference of 2 cm or more is considered significant and
suggestive of venous obstruction. Smaller differences may be normal or due to other causes. Thigh
circumference differences are less specific for DVT and may be affected by edema from other conditions.
Why Wrong:
A - A 0.5 cm difference is within normal variation and not clinically significant for DVT.
C - A 1 cm difference in thigh circumference is not as specific for DVT; calf measurement is more
reliable.
D - A 0.5 cm difference in thighs is not significant.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment (8th ed.). Elsevier, Ch. 20.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports severe headache and visual disturbances. The nurse
notes a blood pressure of 210/130 mm Hg. Which of the following physical findings is most critical
to assess for immediately?
A. Presence of peripheral edema
B. Papilledema on fundoscopic exam
C. Bilateral rales in lung bases
D. Abdominal bruits
Correct Answer: B. Papilledema on fundoscopic exam
Rationale: In hypertensive emergency with severe headache and visual disturbances, papilledema
indicates elevated intracranial pressure and hypertensive encephalopathy, requiring immediate
intervention. Peripheral edema, rales, and abdominal bruits are important but do not reflect the acute
neurological risk.
Why Wrong:
A - Peripheral edema is a sign of heart failure or renal impairment but not the most critical in
hypertensive emergency.
C - Rales may indicate pulmonary edema but are not as immediately life-threatening as papilledema
in this context.
D - Abdominal bruits suggest renovascular hypertension but are not an acute finding.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 12.
Page 3
, Q5. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's trachea is deviated to the
right. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause this finding?
A. Right pleural effusion
B. Left tension pneumothorax
C. Right upper lobe collapse
D. Left lower lobe pneumonia
Correct Answer: B. Left tension pneumothorax
Rationale: Tracheal deviation occurs when there is a shift in mediastinal structures. In tension
pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, pushing the trachea away from the affected side.
Therefore, a left tension pneumothorax would push the trachea to the right. Pleural effusion also pushes
away from the affected side, but tension pneumothorax is more acute. Atelectasis (collapse) pulls the
trachea toward the affected side.
Why Wrong:
A - Right pleural effusion would push the trachea to the left, not the right.
C - Right upper lobe collapse would pull the trachea toward the right (ipsilateral), not away.
D - Left lower lobe pneumonia does not typically cause tracheal deviation unless there is a
complicating effusion or consolidation with volume loss.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment (8th ed.). Elsevier, Ch. 18.
Q6. A patient presents with acute abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. On examination, the
nurse notes that pain is elicited when the patient's right thigh is flexed and the hip is internally
rotated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Renal colic
C. Psoas sign due to retrocecal appendicitis
D. Obturator sign due to pelvic abscess
Correct Answer: C. Psoas sign due to retrocecal appendicitis
Rationale: The psoas sign is elicited by flexing the patient's right thigh and internally rotating the hip,
which stretches the iliopsoas muscle. If the appendix is inflamed and in a retrocecal position, this
maneuver will cause pain. Obturator sign involves external rotation of the hip. Acute cholecystitis and
renal colic do not produce this specific sign.
Why Wrong:
A - Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain and Murphy's sign, not pain with hip
flexion and internal rotation.
B - Renal colic typically presents with flank pain radiating to the groin, not with psoas maneuver.
D - Obturator sign is pain on external rotation of the hip, indicating irritation of the obturator muscle
from a pelvic abscess or appendicitis.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 17.
Page 4
2026/2027 Edition | 250 Verified Questions
NR 302 Health Assessment Final Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100%
Verified Solutions | Updated Per Latest Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam preparation document contains 250 verified, exam-style questions for the
NR 302 Health Assessment final exam. Each question is accompanied by a detailed rationale and
distractor analysis to reinforce key concepts. Designed to mirror the actual exam format, this resource
ensures thorough coverage of all major content areas. With a pass guarantee and A+ grading, it is an
essential tool for nursing students seeking to excel in health assessment.
Abstract:
The NR 302 Health Assessment Final Exam Preparation Document is a meticulously curated collection of 250
exam-style questions designed to simulate the actual final examination. Each question is verified for accuracy and
aligned with the latest 2026/2027 course objectives. The document covers essential topics including health history
taking, physical examination techniques, and systematic assessment of all major body systems. Special emphasis is
placed on developmental variations, cultural competence, and documentation standards. Detailed rationales
explain correct answers and analyze common distractors, fostering deep understanding and clinical judgment. This
resource is ideal for nursing students aiming for a top grade, as it provides comprehensive coverage and rigorous
practice. The content reflects current best practices in health assessment and prepares students for both the exam
and real-world clinical application.
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Health History & Interview 1-40 Communication techniques, health history 16%
components, cultural considerations,
developmental variations
Physical Examination 41-80 Inspection, palpation, percussion, 16%
Techniques auscultation, equipment use, infection
control
Cardiovascular & Peripheral 81-110 Heart sounds, pulses, jugular venous 12%
Vascular pressure, peripheral edema, vascular
assessment
Respiratory System 111-140 Breath sounds, chest inspection, percussion, 12%
tactile fremitus, respiratory patterns
Neurological System 141-170 Cranial nerves, motor/sensory function, 12%
reflexes, mental status, coordination
Abdominal & Gastrointestinal 171-200 Abdominal inspection, auscultation, 12%
percussion, palpation, liver/spleen
assessment
Musculoskeletal & 201-230 Joint range of motion, muscle strength, skin 12%
Integumentary lesions, pressure ulcers, gait assessment
Head, Eyes, Ears, Nose, Throat 231-250 Vision and hearing tests, otoscopic exam, 8%
(HEENT) oral cavity, thyroid assessment, lymph nodes
Page 1
,Q1. A clinician is assessing a patient who presents with acute onset of pleuritic chest pain, dyspnea,
and a dry cough. On auscultation, a high-pitched, scratching, superficial sound is heard that is not
cleared by coughing. The sound is best heard at the left lower sternal border during expiration.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this finding?
A. Pleural friction rub due to inflammation of the pleural layers
B. Pericardial friction rub due to inflammation of the pericardium
C. Fine crackles due to interstitial pulmonary edema
D. Wheezing due to bronchospasm
Correct Answer: B. Pericardial friction rub due to inflammation of the pericardium
Rationale: A pericardial friction rub is a high-pitched, scratching, grating sound heard best at the left
lower sternal border, often in expiration, and is not cleared by coughing. It indicates pericarditis. A
pleural friction rub is more typically heard over the lateral chest and may change with breathing but is
not specifically located at the left lower sternal border. Crackles and wheezing are associated with
different pathologies.
Why Wrong:
A - A pleural friction rub is typically heard over the lateral chest and may be associated with
pleuritic pain, but the location and quality described here are classic for pericardial rub.
C - Fine crackles are discontinuous, non-musical sounds heard in pulmonary edema, not a
high-pitched scratchy sound.
D - Wheezing is a continuous musical sound due to airway narrowing, not a scratching sound.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 9.
Q2. During a cardiovascular assessment, the nurse palpates a thrill at the left lower sternal border.
Which of the following valvular lesions is most consistent with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic stenosis
C. Ventricular septal defect
D. Tricuspid regurgitation
Correct Answer: C. Ventricular septal defect
Rationale: A thrill is a palpable vibration caused by turbulent blood flow. A thrill at the left lower sternal
border (LLSB) is characteristic of a ventricular septal defect (VSD), where blood shunts from the left to
the right ventricle. Mitral stenosis thrill is at the apex, aortic stenosis at the right upper sternal border,
and tricuspid regurgitation typically produces a thrill at the LLSB only if severe, but VSD is more classic.
Why Wrong:
A - Mitral stenosis thrill is best palpated at the apical area, not at the left lower sternal border.
B - Aortic stenosis thrill is at the right upper sternal border or carotid arteries.
D - Tricuspid regurgitation may produce a thrill at the LLSB, but it is less common and usually
associated with other findings; VSD is more characteristic.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 11.
Page 2
,Q3. When assessing a patient with suspected deep vein thrombosis (DVT), the nurse measures the
circumference of both lower extremities. Which of the following findings is most indicative of DVT?
A. A difference of 0.5 cm between calves
B. A difference of 2 cm between calves
C. A difference of 1 cm between thighs
D. A difference of 0.5 cm between thighs
Correct Answer: B. A difference of 2 cm between calves
Rationale: In DVT, a difference in calf circumference of 2 cm or more is considered significant and
suggestive of venous obstruction. Smaller differences may be normal or due to other causes. Thigh
circumference differences are less specific for DVT and may be affected by edema from other conditions.
Why Wrong:
A - A 0.5 cm difference is within normal variation and not clinically significant for DVT.
C - A 1 cm difference in thigh circumference is not as specific for DVT; calf measurement is more
reliable.
D - A 0.5 cm difference in thighs is not significant.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment (8th ed.). Elsevier, Ch. 20.
Q4. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports severe headache and visual disturbances. The nurse
notes a blood pressure of 210/130 mm Hg. Which of the following physical findings is most critical
to assess for immediately?
A. Presence of peripheral edema
B. Papilledema on fundoscopic exam
C. Bilateral rales in lung bases
D. Abdominal bruits
Correct Answer: B. Papilledema on fundoscopic exam
Rationale: In hypertensive emergency with severe headache and visual disturbances, papilledema
indicates elevated intracranial pressure and hypertensive encephalopathy, requiring immediate
intervention. Peripheral edema, rales, and abdominal bruits are important but do not reflect the acute
neurological risk.
Why Wrong:
A - Peripheral edema is a sign of heart failure or renal impairment but not the most critical in
hypertensive emergency.
C - Rales may indicate pulmonary edema but are not as immediately life-threatening as papilledema
in this context.
D - Abdominal bruits suggest renovascular hypertension but are not an acute finding.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 12.
Page 3
, Q5. During a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes that the patient's trachea is deviated to the
right. Which of the following conditions is most likely to cause this finding?
A. Right pleural effusion
B. Left tension pneumothorax
C. Right upper lobe collapse
D. Left lower lobe pneumonia
Correct Answer: B. Left tension pneumothorax
Rationale: Tracheal deviation occurs when there is a shift in mediastinal structures. In tension
pneumothorax, air accumulates in the pleural space, pushing the trachea away from the affected side.
Therefore, a left tension pneumothorax would push the trachea to the right. Pleural effusion also pushes
away from the affected side, but tension pneumothorax is more acute. Atelectasis (collapse) pulls the
trachea toward the affected side.
Why Wrong:
A - Right pleural effusion would push the trachea to the left, not the right.
C - Right upper lobe collapse would pull the trachea toward the right (ipsilateral), not away.
D - Left lower lobe pneumonia does not typically cause tracheal deviation unless there is a
complicating effusion or consolidation with volume loss.
Reference: Jarvis, C. (2026). Physical Examination and Health Assessment (8th ed.). Elsevier, Ch. 18.
Q6. A patient presents with acute abdominal pain in the right lower quadrant. On examination, the
nurse notes that pain is elicited when the patient's right thigh is flexed and the hip is internally
rotated. Which of the following is the most likely underlying cause?
A. Acute cholecystitis
B. Renal colic
C. Psoas sign due to retrocecal appendicitis
D. Obturator sign due to pelvic abscess
Correct Answer: C. Psoas sign due to retrocecal appendicitis
Rationale: The psoas sign is elicited by flexing the patient's right thigh and internally rotating the hip,
which stretches the iliopsoas muscle. If the appendix is inflamed and in a retrocecal position, this
maneuver will cause pain. Obturator sign involves external rotation of the hip. Acute cholecystitis and
renal colic do not produce this specific sign.
Why Wrong:
A - Acute cholecystitis presents with right upper quadrant pain and Murphy's sign, not pain with hip
flexion and internal rotation.
B - Renal colic typically presents with flank pain radiating to the groin, not with psoas maneuver.
D - Obturator sign is pain on external rotation of the hip, indicating irritation of the obturator muscle
from a pelvic abscess or appendicitis.
Reference: Bickley, L. S., & Szilagyi, P. G. (2026). Bates' Guide to Physical Examination and History
Taking (13th ed.). Wolters Kluwer, Ch. 17.
Page 4
