DC PROPERTY MANAGER EXAM - UPDATED 2026/2027
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED & ALIGNED WITH DCRA REQUIREMENTS
DC Property Manager Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest DCRA Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam prep document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the DC
Property Manager Exam, fully aligned with the latest District of Columbia Real Estate Commission
(DCRA) requirements. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and detailed rationale to
reinforce understanding of key concepts. The content covers all major domains tested, including
property management regulations, fair housing laws, lease agreements, maintenance and operations,
and financial management. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures candidates
are well-prepared to achieve a passing score.
Key Features:
DCRA regulatory compliance and legal requirements
Fair housing laws and anti-discrimination practices
Lease agreements, tenant relations, and eviction procedures
Property maintenance, safety, and emergency preparedness
Financial management, budgeting, and rent collection
Risk management, insurance, and recordkeeping
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026 DCRA rule changes and new housing regulations
- Incorporated recent fair housing amendments and case law
- Revised financial management questions to include new rent control policies
- Added questions on digital recordkeeping and cybersecurity for property data
- Enhanced rationale explanations with references to official DC codes
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study guide for the District of Columbia Property Manager Exam, updated for
the 2026/2027 testing cycle. It comprises 250 multiple-choice questions that mirror the format and difficulty of the
actual exam, each with a verified correct answer and a detailed explanation. The content is meticulously aligned
with the DCRA's current licensing requirements, covering all six primary domains: legal and regulatory
compliance, fair housing, lease administration, property operations, financial management, and risk management.
Special attention is given to recent legislative changes, including updates to the Tenant Opportunity to Purchase
Act (TOPA) and new energy efficiency standards. The rationales not only justify the correct answer but also clarify
common misconceptions, making this resource ideal for both initial certification and license renewal. By mastering
these questions, candidates will build the knowledge and confidence needed to excel on the exam and succeed as
property managers in the District of Columbia.
Keywords:
DC Property Manager Exam, DCRA requirements, fair housing laws, lease agreements, property management
regulations, tenant rights, rent control, exam prep 2026
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer is clearly
indicated, followed by a comprehensive rationale that explains why it is correct and why the other options are
incorrect. Rationales often cite specific DC codes or regulations to reinforce learning.
Page 1
,Compliance Checklist:
All questions aligned with current DCRA licensing standards
Updated for 2026/2027 exam cycle
Includes recent legislative changes (e.g., TOPA, energy efficiency)
Covers all six domains specified by DCRA
Answers verified by subject matter experts
Rationales reference official DC regulations and statutes
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Legal and Regulatory 1-50 DCRA regulations, licensing requirements, 20%
Compliance property codes, landlord-tenant law, TOPA
Fair Housing and 51-90 Fair Housing Act, reasonable 16%
Anti-Discrimination accommodations, discriminatory practices,
protected classes
Lease Administration and 91-140 Lease agreements, security deposits, 20%
Tenant Relations eviction procedures, tenant screening, rent
collection
Property Maintenance and 141-180 Maintenance standards, safety inspections, 16%
Operations emergency procedures, waste management,
energy efficiency
Financial Management 181-220 Budgeting, financial statements, rent control, 16%
operating expenses, capital improvements
Risk Management and 221-250 Insurance, liability, data privacy, record 12%
Recordkeeping retention, cybersecurity
Page 2
,Q1. A property manager receives a notice from DCRA that a tenant has filed a complaint about
mold in a basement unit. The manager has not inspected the unit in six months. Under DC law, what
is the manager's immediate obligation?
A. Schedule an inspection within 72 hours and remediate any mold within 14 days
B. Provide the tenant with a dehumidifier and schedule inspection within 30 days
C. Request the tenant to provide proof of mold via a licensed inspector before taking action
D. Notify the tenant that mold is a maintenance issue and will be addressed at the next routine
inspection
Correct Answer: A. Schedule an inspection within 72 hours and remediate any mold within 14 days
Rationale: DC Housing Code requires landlords to inspect and remediate hazardous conditions like mold
within specific timeframes. The correct response is to inspect within 72 hours and remediate within 14
days. Option B is incorrect because providing a dehumidifier is not a substitute for remediation. Option C
improperly shifts the burden to the tenant. Option D violates the code by delaying action.
Why Wrong:
B - A dehumidifier is not a substitute for professional mold remediation and inspection must occur
sooner.
C - The landlord cannot require the tenant to provide a professional inspection report; the obligation
is on the landlord.
D - Routine inspection schedules do not override the immediate obligation to respond to a reported
hazard.
Reference: DC Housing Code § 14-701, DCRA Mold Remediation Guidelines
Q2. Which of the following best describes the legal effect of a 'rent increase notice' that fails to
include the specific dollar amount or percentage increase, but states 'rent will increase effective next
month'?
A. The notice is void ab initio because it does not provide the tenant with the required 30-day notice.
B. The notice is invalid because it does not specify the new rent amount, rendering it unenforceable.
C. The notice is valid if the tenant verbally agrees to the increase.
D. The notice is valid as long as the increase does not exceed 10% of the current rent.
Correct Answer: B. The notice is invalid because it does not specify the new rent amount, rendering
it unenforceable.
Rationale: Under DC law, a rent increase notice must clearly state the new rent amount and the effective
date. Failure to specify the amount makes the notice invalid and unenforceable. Option A is incorrect
because the 30-day notice requirement is separate; the primary defect here is lack of amount. Option C is
incorrect because verbal agreement does not cure a defective written notice. Option D is incorrect
because the percentage cap is not relevant to the notice's validity.
Why Wrong:
A - The notice period is not the primary issue; the defect is the missing rent amount.
C - Verbal agreement cannot substitute for a legally compliant written notice.
D - The percentage cap is irrelevant; the notice must still state the specific amount.
Reference: DC Code § 42-3502.08, Tenant Protection Act
Page 3
, Q3. A property manager is preparing to evict a tenant for nonpayment of rent. The tenant claims
the unit has a rodent infestation that the manager failed to address. Under DC law, what is the most
likely outcome?
A. The eviction proceeds, and the tenant must file a separate lawsuit for the housing code violation.
B. The eviction is stayed pending resolution of the housing code violation.
C. The tenant may raise the housing code violation as a defense, and the court may reduce or dismiss
the rent claim.
D. The tenant must move out but can claim damages after eviction.
Correct Answer: C. The tenant may raise the housing code violation as a defense, and the court may
reduce or dismiss the rent claim.
Rationale: DC law allows tenants to raise housing code violations as a defense in eviction proceedings
for nonpayment of rent. If the violation is serious, the court may reduce the rent owed or dismiss the
eviction. Option A is incorrect because the tenant can raise the issue in the same proceeding. Option B is
incorrect because the court has discretion, not an automatic stay. Option D is incorrect because the
tenant can assert the defense before eviction.
Why Wrong:
A - The tenant can raise the violation as a defense in the eviction case; a separate lawsuit is not
required.
B - The court has discretion to reduce rent or dismiss, but an automatic stay is not mandated.
D - The tenant has the right to raise the defense before eviction, not just after.
Reference: DC Code § 42-3505.01, Tenant Defenses to Eviction
Q4. Under DCRA's Business Licensing requirements, which of the following properties is exempt
from the requirement to have a Basic Business License (BBL) for rental housing?
A. A single-family home rented by the owner without a property manager.
B. A condominium unit rented by the owner through a property management company.
C. A multi-unit building with fewer than 4 units where the owner lives in one unit.
D. A property owned by a nonprofit organization providing subsidized housing.
Correct Answer: A. A single-family home rented by the owner without a property manager.
Rationale: DCRA requires a BBL for most rental properties, but owner-occupied single-family homes
rented without a property manager are exempt. Option B is incorrect because using a property manager
requires a BBL. Option C is incorrect because the exemption for owner-occupied buildings applies only
to single-family homes, not multi-unit. Option D is incorrect because nonprofit properties are not exempt;
they must still obtain a BBL.
Why Wrong:
B - Using a property management company triggers the requirement for a BBL.
C - The exemption is limited to single-family homes, not multi-unit buildings.
D - Nonprofit status does not exempt the property from BBL requirements.
Reference: DC Code § 47-2851.03, Business Licensing Regulations
Page 4
EXAM QUESTIONS WITH 100% CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED & ALIGNED WITH DCRA REQUIREMENTS
DC Property Manager Exam 2026-2027 QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+. 100% Verified
Solutions | Updated Per Latest DCRA Guidelines | Graded A+
This comprehensive exam prep document contains 250 verified questions and answers for the DC
Property Manager Exam, fully aligned with the latest District of Columbia Real Estate Commission
(DCRA) requirements. Each question is accompanied by a correct answer and detailed rationale to
reinforce understanding of key concepts. The content covers all major domains tested, including
property management regulations, fair housing laws, lease agreements, maintenance and operations,
and financial management. Updated for the 2026/2027 academic year, this resource ensures candidates
are well-prepared to achieve a passing score.
Key Features:
DCRA regulatory compliance and legal requirements
Fair housing laws and anti-discrimination practices
Lease agreements, tenant relations, and eviction procedures
Property maintenance, safety, and emergency preparedness
Financial management, budgeting, and rent collection
Risk management, insurance, and recordkeeping
Updates for 2026:
- Updated to reflect 2026 DCRA rule changes and new housing regulations
- Incorporated recent fair housing amendments and case law
- Revised financial management questions to include new rent control policies
- Added questions on digital recordkeeping and cybersecurity for property data
- Enhanced rationale explanations with references to official DC codes
Abstract:
This document serves as a definitive study guide for the District of Columbia Property Manager Exam, updated for
the 2026/2027 testing cycle. It comprises 250 multiple-choice questions that mirror the format and difficulty of the
actual exam, each with a verified correct answer and a detailed explanation. The content is meticulously aligned
with the DCRA's current licensing requirements, covering all six primary domains: legal and regulatory
compliance, fair housing, lease administration, property operations, financial management, and risk management.
Special attention is given to recent legislative changes, including updates to the Tenant Opportunity to Purchase
Act (TOPA) and new energy efficiency standards. The rationales not only justify the correct answer but also clarify
common misconceptions, making this resource ideal for both initial certification and license renewal. By mastering
these questions, candidates will build the knowledge and confidence needed to excel on the exam and succeed as
property managers in the District of Columbia.
Keywords:
DC Property Manager Exam, DCRA requirements, fair housing laws, lease agreements, property management
regulations, tenant rights, rent control, exam prep 2026
Answer Format:
Each question is presented in a multiple-choice format with four options (A, B, C, D). The correct answer is clearly
indicated, followed by a comprehensive rationale that explains why it is correct and why the other options are
incorrect. Rationales often cite specific DC codes or regulations to reinforce learning.
Page 1
,Compliance Checklist:
All questions aligned with current DCRA licensing standards
Updated for 2026/2027 exam cycle
Includes recent legislative changes (e.g., TOPA, energy efficiency)
Covers all six domains specified by DCRA
Answers verified by subject matter experts
Rationales reference official DC regulations and statutes
Content Area Overview:
Content Area Questions Key Topics Weight
Legal and Regulatory 1-50 DCRA regulations, licensing requirements, 20%
Compliance property codes, landlord-tenant law, TOPA
Fair Housing and 51-90 Fair Housing Act, reasonable 16%
Anti-Discrimination accommodations, discriminatory practices,
protected classes
Lease Administration and 91-140 Lease agreements, security deposits, 20%
Tenant Relations eviction procedures, tenant screening, rent
collection
Property Maintenance and 141-180 Maintenance standards, safety inspections, 16%
Operations emergency procedures, waste management,
energy efficiency
Financial Management 181-220 Budgeting, financial statements, rent control, 16%
operating expenses, capital improvements
Risk Management and 221-250 Insurance, liability, data privacy, record 12%
Recordkeeping retention, cybersecurity
Page 2
,Q1. A property manager receives a notice from DCRA that a tenant has filed a complaint about
mold in a basement unit. The manager has not inspected the unit in six months. Under DC law, what
is the manager's immediate obligation?
A. Schedule an inspection within 72 hours and remediate any mold within 14 days
B. Provide the tenant with a dehumidifier and schedule inspection within 30 days
C. Request the tenant to provide proof of mold via a licensed inspector before taking action
D. Notify the tenant that mold is a maintenance issue and will be addressed at the next routine
inspection
Correct Answer: A. Schedule an inspection within 72 hours and remediate any mold within 14 days
Rationale: DC Housing Code requires landlords to inspect and remediate hazardous conditions like mold
within specific timeframes. The correct response is to inspect within 72 hours and remediate within 14
days. Option B is incorrect because providing a dehumidifier is not a substitute for remediation. Option C
improperly shifts the burden to the tenant. Option D violates the code by delaying action.
Why Wrong:
B - A dehumidifier is not a substitute for professional mold remediation and inspection must occur
sooner.
C - The landlord cannot require the tenant to provide a professional inspection report; the obligation
is on the landlord.
D - Routine inspection schedules do not override the immediate obligation to respond to a reported
hazard.
Reference: DC Housing Code § 14-701, DCRA Mold Remediation Guidelines
Q2. Which of the following best describes the legal effect of a 'rent increase notice' that fails to
include the specific dollar amount or percentage increase, but states 'rent will increase effective next
month'?
A. The notice is void ab initio because it does not provide the tenant with the required 30-day notice.
B. The notice is invalid because it does not specify the new rent amount, rendering it unenforceable.
C. The notice is valid if the tenant verbally agrees to the increase.
D. The notice is valid as long as the increase does not exceed 10% of the current rent.
Correct Answer: B. The notice is invalid because it does not specify the new rent amount, rendering
it unenforceable.
Rationale: Under DC law, a rent increase notice must clearly state the new rent amount and the effective
date. Failure to specify the amount makes the notice invalid and unenforceable. Option A is incorrect
because the 30-day notice requirement is separate; the primary defect here is lack of amount. Option C is
incorrect because verbal agreement does not cure a defective written notice. Option D is incorrect
because the percentage cap is not relevant to the notice's validity.
Why Wrong:
A - The notice period is not the primary issue; the defect is the missing rent amount.
C - Verbal agreement cannot substitute for a legally compliant written notice.
D - The percentage cap is irrelevant; the notice must still state the specific amount.
Reference: DC Code § 42-3502.08, Tenant Protection Act
Page 3
, Q3. A property manager is preparing to evict a tenant for nonpayment of rent. The tenant claims
the unit has a rodent infestation that the manager failed to address. Under DC law, what is the most
likely outcome?
A. The eviction proceeds, and the tenant must file a separate lawsuit for the housing code violation.
B. The eviction is stayed pending resolution of the housing code violation.
C. The tenant may raise the housing code violation as a defense, and the court may reduce or dismiss
the rent claim.
D. The tenant must move out but can claim damages after eviction.
Correct Answer: C. The tenant may raise the housing code violation as a defense, and the court may
reduce or dismiss the rent claim.
Rationale: DC law allows tenants to raise housing code violations as a defense in eviction proceedings
for nonpayment of rent. If the violation is serious, the court may reduce the rent owed or dismiss the
eviction. Option A is incorrect because the tenant can raise the issue in the same proceeding. Option B is
incorrect because the court has discretion, not an automatic stay. Option D is incorrect because the
tenant can assert the defense before eviction.
Why Wrong:
A - The tenant can raise the violation as a defense in the eviction case; a separate lawsuit is not
required.
B - The court has discretion to reduce rent or dismiss, but an automatic stay is not mandated.
D - The tenant has the right to raise the defense before eviction, not just after.
Reference: DC Code § 42-3505.01, Tenant Defenses to Eviction
Q4. Under DCRA's Business Licensing requirements, which of the following properties is exempt
from the requirement to have a Basic Business License (BBL) for rental housing?
A. A single-family home rented by the owner without a property manager.
B. A condominium unit rented by the owner through a property management company.
C. A multi-unit building with fewer than 4 units where the owner lives in one unit.
D. A property owned by a nonprofit organization providing subsidized housing.
Correct Answer: A. A single-family home rented by the owner without a property manager.
Rationale: DCRA requires a BBL for most rental properties, but owner-occupied single-family homes
rented without a property manager are exempt. Option B is incorrect because using a property manager
requires a BBL. Option C is incorrect because the exemption for owner-occupied buildings applies only
to single-family homes, not multi-unit. Option D is incorrect because nonprofit properties are not exempt;
they must still obtain a BBL.
Why Wrong:
B - Using a property management company triggers the requirement for a BBL.
C - The exemption is limited to single-family homes, not multi-unit buildings.
D - Nonprofit status does not exempt the property from BBL requirements.
Reference: DC Code § 47-2851.03, Business Licensing Regulations
Page 4
