ATI RN COMPREHENSIVE PREDICTOR LATEST
UPDATED 2026-2027 ACTUAL FINAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE DETAILED 100 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
PLUS ANSWER KEY GUARANTEED A+ GOOD LUCK!!!
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates that the client understands the
teaching about insulin administration?
A. The client stores unopened vials of insulin in the freezer.
B. The client rotates injection sites within the same anatomic region.
C. The client draws up regular insulin before NPH insulin when mixing.
D. The client administers insulin at a 90-degree angle with a 5/8-inch needle.
Rationale: When mixing insulins, regular insulin should be drawn up first to
prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin. Unopened
insulin should be refrigerated, not frozen. Rotation of sites within the same
region is recommended, but the question asks for an indication of understanding
teaching, and the correct drawing-up procedure is a key safety point. A 5/8-inch
needle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, but the angle depends on
the amount of subcutaneous tissue.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal
surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Heart rate of 88/min
,B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
Rationale: Absent bowel sounds postoperatively can indicate a paralytic ileus or
other complication and should be reported. Mild tachycardia, a slightly elevated
temperature, and stable blood pressure are common findings in the
postoperative period.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs.
B. Start an IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride.
C. Check the unit of blood with another nurse.
D. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
Rationale: The first action in the transfusion process is to verify the client's
identity using two identifiers to ensure the correct blood product is given to the
correct client. This is a critical safety step. Vital signs, starting the IV, and
checking the blood with another nurse are also important but occur after
verification.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Sodium
B. Glucose
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low
potassium) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum
potassium is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will have my blood tested regularly."
,B. "I will avoid drinking alcohol."
C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
D. "I will use a soft toothbrush."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and taking ibuprofen (an NSAID)
increases the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects and potential for
gastrointestinal irritation. Clients should avoid NSAIDs while taking warfarin.
Regular blood testing (PT/INR), avoiding alcohol, and using a soft toothbrush are
all appropriate safety measures.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds
B. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
C. Fetal heart rate of 140/min
D. Fetal heart rate of 100/min lasting 30 seconds after a contraction
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 100/min lasting 30 seconds after a contraction
indicates late decelerations, which are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and
should be reported immediately. Contractions lasting 60 seconds, 4 cm dilation,
and a fetal heart rate of 140/min are expected findings during active labor.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of
the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse recommend?
A. Increase intake of red meat.
B. Increase intake of processed foods.
C. Decrease physical activity to 3 times per week.
D. Decrease sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
Rationale: The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet
recommends limiting sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day (and ideally
1,500 mg) to help manage hypertension. Clients should increase physical
activity, reduce red meat and processed food intake, and follow a diet rich in
fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client in the
ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
, A. Use a 1-inch needle.
B. Use the Z-track method.
C. Place the client in a prone position.
D. Palpate the greater trochanter to locate the site.
Rationale: To locate the ventrogluteal site, the nurse should palpate the greater
trochanter and the anterior superior iliac spine. This site is preferred for IM
injections in adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels. A 1.5-
inch needle is typically used, the Z-track method is not specific to this site, and
the client can be in a lateral or supine position.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following
findings is an early indication of fluid volume overload?
A. Dyspnea
B. Weight gain
C. Peripheral edema
D. Crackles in the lung bases
Rationale: Crackles in the lung bases are an early sign of pulmonary congestion
associated with fluid volume overload in heart failure. While dyspnea, weight
gain, and peripheral edema are also signs, crackles often appear earlier as fluid
accumulates in the lungs.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
B. Check the residual volume every 8 hours.
C. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
D. Change the feeding bag every 24 hours.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees during continuous
enteral feedings helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux and
regurgitation. Flushing the tube, checking residuals, and changing the feeding
bag are important for other reasons but do not directly prevent aspiration as the
primary intervention.
UPDATED 2026-2027 ACTUAL FINAL EXAM WITH
COMPLETE DETAILED 100 QUESTIONS AND
CORRECT VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES
PLUS ANSWER KEY GUARANTEED A+ GOOD LUCK!!!
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings indicates that the client understands the
teaching about insulin administration?
A. The client stores unopened vials of insulin in the freezer.
B. The client rotates injection sites within the same anatomic region.
C. The client draws up regular insulin before NPH insulin when mixing.
D. The client administers insulin at a 90-degree angle with a 5/8-inch needle.
Rationale: When mixing insulins, regular insulin should be drawn up first to
prevent contamination of the regular insulin vial with NPH insulin. Unopened
insulin should be refrigerated, not frozen. Rotation of sites within the same
region is recommended, but the question asks for an indication of understanding
teaching, and the correct drawing-up procedure is a key safety point. A 5/8-inch
needle is typically used for subcutaneous injections, but the angle depends on
the amount of subcutaneous tissue.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 days postoperative following abdominal
surgery. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Heart rate of 88/min
,B. Temperature of 37.5°C (99.5°F)
C. Blood pressure of 118/76 mm Hg
D. Absent bowel sounds in all four quadrants
Rationale: Absent bowel sounds postoperatively can indicate a paralytic ileus or
other complication and should be reported. Mild tachycardia, a slightly elevated
temperature, and stable blood pressure are common findings in the
postoperative period.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which of the
following actions should the nurse take first?
A. Obtain the client's vital signs.
B. Start an IV line with 0.9% sodium chloride.
C. Check the unit of blood with another nurse.
D. Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
Rationale: The first action in the transfusion process is to verify the client's
identity using two identifiers to ensure the correct blood product is given to the
correct client. This is a critical safety step. Vital signs, starting the IV, and
checking the blood with another nurse are also important but occur after
verification.
4. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for furosemide. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?
A. Sodium
B. Glucose
C. Potassium
D. Calcium
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause hypokalemia (low
potassium) due to increased potassium excretion in the urine. Monitoring serum
potassium is essential to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias.
5. A nurse is providing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for
further teaching?
A. "I will have my blood tested regularly."
,B. "I will avoid drinking alcohol."
C. "I will take ibuprofen for my headaches."
D. "I will use a soft toothbrush."
Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant, and taking ibuprofen (an NSAID)
increases the risk of bleeding due to its antiplatelet effects and potential for
gastrointestinal irritation. Clients should avoid NSAIDs while taking warfarin.
Regular blood testing (PT/INR), avoiding alcohol, and using a soft toothbrush are
all appropriate safety measures.
6. A nurse is assessing a client who is in active labor. Which of the following
findings should the nurse report to the provider?
A. Contractions lasting 60 seconds
B. Cervical dilation of 4 cm
C. Fetal heart rate of 140/min
D. Fetal heart rate of 100/min lasting 30 seconds after a contraction
Rationale: A fetal heart rate of 100/min lasting 30 seconds after a contraction
indicates late decelerations, which are a sign of uteroplacental insufficiency and
should be reported immediately. Contractions lasting 60 seconds, 4 cm dilation,
and a fetal heart rate of 140/min are expected findings during active labor.
7. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of hypertension. Which of
the following lifestyle modifications should the nurse recommend?
A. Increase intake of red meat.
B. Increase intake of processed foods.
C. Decrease physical activity to 3 times per week.
D. Decrease sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day.
Rationale: The Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension (DASH) diet
recommends limiting sodium intake to less than 2,300 mg per day (and ideally
1,500 mg) to help manage hypertension. Clients should increase physical
activity, reduce red meat and processed food intake, and follow a diet rich in
fruits, vegetables, and whole grains.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection to an adult client in the
ventrogluteal site. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
, A. Use a 1-inch needle.
B. Use the Z-track method.
C. Place the client in a prone position.
D. Palpate the greater trochanter to locate the site.
Rationale: To locate the ventrogluteal site, the nurse should palpate the greater
trochanter and the anterior superior iliac spine. This site is preferred for IM
injections in adults because it is free of major nerves and blood vessels. A 1.5-
inch needle is typically used, the Z-track method is not specific to this site, and
the client can be in a lateral or supine position.
9. A nurse is assessing a client who has heart failure. Which of the following
findings is an early indication of fluid volume overload?
A. Dyspnea
B. Weight gain
C. Peripheral edema
D. Crackles in the lung bases
Rationale: Crackles in the lung bases are an early sign of pulmonary congestion
associated with fluid volume overload in heart failure. While dyspnea, weight
gain, and peripheral edema are also signs, crackles often appear earlier as fluid
accumulates in the lungs.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving continuous enteral tube feedings.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take to prevent aspiration?
A. Flush the tube with 30 mL of water every 4 hours.
B. Check the residual volume every 8 hours.
C. Elevate the head of the bed to at least 30 degrees.
D. Change the feeding bag every 24 hours.
Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees during continuous
enteral feedings helps prevent aspiration by reducing the risk of reflux and
regurgitation. Flushing the tube, checking residuals, and changing the feeding
bag are important for other reasons but do not directly prevent aspiration as the
primary intervention.
