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NSG 6020 WEEK 8 QUIZ – MALE GU ASSESSMENT – 2026/2027 Edition –Questions with 100% Verified Correct Answer

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1. Jim is a 47-year-old man having difficulties with sexual function. He recently separated from his wife of 20 years. He reports early morning erections but otherwise cannot function. Which is a likely cause? a) Abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation b) Psychological issues c) Decreased testosterone levels d) Impaired neural innervation Rationale: Preservation of early morning erections indicates intact vascular, neurologic, and hormonal function. Inability to function situationally after major psychosocial stressor (separation) points to psychogenic erectile dysfunction. 2. A 12-year-old boy reports left testicle enlarged and tender yesterday. Denies sexual intercourse. Has had sore throat, cough, runny nose 3 days. Exam: Temp 100.8F, left scrotum red, tense, mildly sore swollen testicle. UA unremarkable. What abnormality? a) Testicular torsion b) Viral orchitis / Epididymo-orchitis c) Testicular cancer d) Bacterial epididymitis from STI Rationale: Prepubertal, no sexual activity, recent viral URI symptoms, low-grade fever, and negative urinalysis make STI/bacterial cause unlikely. Viral orchitis (e.g., mumps, EBV, enterovirus) causes tender swollen testis with systemic viral symptoms.

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NSG 6020 WEEK 8 QUIZ – MALE GU ASSESSMENT –
2026/2027 Edition –Questions with 100% Verified
Correct Answers
Questions with Step-by-Step Answers | 100% Verified | A+ Graded Review


INTRODUCTION:

This NSG 6020 WEEK 8 QUIZ – MALE GU is a comprehensive review of the male
genitourinary system focusing on physical examination, differential diagnosis, and
clinical decision-making for disorders of the penis, scrotum, testes, prostate, and
inguinal region. This quiz evaluates understanding of sexual dysfunction, testicular
abnormalities, sexually transmitted infections, hernias, rectal examination techniques,
and newborn assessment.


Answers are in bold Green, with rationales after.


1. Jim is a 47-year-old man having difficulties with sexual function. He recently
separated from his wife of 20 years. He reports early morning erections but
otherwise cannot function. Which is a likely cause?
a) Abnormal hypogastric arterial circulation
b) Psychological issues
c) Decreased testosterone levels
d) Impaired neural innervation
Rationale: Preservation of early morning erections indicates intact vascular, neurologic,
and hormonal function. Inability to function situationally after major psychosocial
stressor (separation) points to psychogenic erectile dysfunction.

2. A 12-year-old boy reports left testicle enlarged and tender yesterday. Denies
sexual intercourse. Has had sore throat, cough, runny nose 3 days. Exam: Temp
100.8F, left scrotum red, tense, mildly sore swollen testicle. UA unremarkable.
What abnormality?
a) Testicular torsion
b) Viral orchitis / Epididymo-orchitis
c) Testicular cancer
d) Bacterial epididymitis from STI
Rationale: Prepubertal, no sexual activity, recent viral URI symptoms, low-grade fever,
and negative urinalysis make STI/bacterial cause unlikely. Viral orchitis (e.g., mumps,
EBV, enterovirus) causes tender swollen testis with systemic viral symptoms.

, 3. Important techniques in performing the rectal examination include which of the
following?
a) Lubrication
b) Waiting for the sphincter to relax
c) Explaining what the patient should expect with each step
d) All of the above
Rationale: All three reduce pain, sphincter spasm, and patient anxiety. Lubrication
prevents mucosal trauma, waiting for relaxation prevents false sphincter tone
assessment, and explanation maintains trust and cooperation.

4. Which condition involves a tight prepuce which, once retracted, cannot be
returned?
a) Phimosis
b) Paraphimosis
c) Balanitis
d) Hypospadias
Rationale: Phimosis = cannot retract foreskin. Paraphimosis = retracted foreskin cannot
be returned over glans, leading to venous congestion and emergency. Balanitis is
inflammation of glans, hypospadias is ventral meatal opening.

5. 22-year-old roofer with pain in testicle and penis, worse with urination, new
partner, no condoms. Exam: severe tenderness at superior pole of left testicle
and structures superior to testicle. UA: WBC and bacteria. Diagnosis?
a) Testicular torsion
b) Acute epididymitis
c) Testicular cancer
d) Inguinal hernia
Rationale: Acute onset testicular pain + dysuria + pyuria/bacteriuria + new STI
exposure + tenderness localized to epididymis (superior pole and above testicle) is
classic for epididymitis, most often Chlamydia trachomatis or N. gonorrhoeae in this age
group.

6. Francis, middle-aged man, right lower abdominal pain after straining with
yardwork. Which finding makes hernia more likely?
a) Pain relieved by lying flat with no bulge
b) Palpable bulge with impulse on bearing down / Valsalva
c) Positive transillumination
d) Diffuse abdominal tenderness
Rationale: Hernias present with fascial defect allowing protrusion with increased intra-
abdominal pressure. A palpable bulge or cough impulse at inguinal ring that appears
with straining is pathognomonic. Transillumination suggests hydrocele.

7. Which is the most common cause of cancer deaths in males?
a) Prostate cancer
b) Lung cancer

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