MCQ Questions Preliminary examination
All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CAN NOT BE RELIED ON 100%
but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would be asked about. Please
add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in the hands of any who is sitting the exam. By
the way it took me about 4 months to get this organised the way it is now.
THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will.
Hadi
1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to,
A. Avoid buccal pulp horn
B. Avoid lingual pulp horn
C. Remove unsupported enamel
D. Conserve lingual dentine
2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should,
A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. reduce 2mm for retention form
3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should,
A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly
4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restoration
is true?
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.
5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed,
A. Parallel to the outer wall
B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth
6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is,
A. Injecting too low
B. Injecting too high
7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation:
A. SnF2
B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2
D. CaSiF2
E. 8% Stannous fluoride
8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is,
,A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
9. The most mineralised part of dentine is,
A. Peritubular dentine
10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema
of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling,
pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the
anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion,
palpation, pain, and periapical area of rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is
normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital
and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is:
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis
11. Internal resorption is,
A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal
12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see,
A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F. All of the above
13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm away from
pulp is,
A. 20%
B. 50%
14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is,
A. A reversal line
B. Sharp curvature
C. A resting line
D. A reduction in the number of tubules
,15. What is the correct sequence of events
A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of
enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.
17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres?
A. Afferent & sympathetic
18. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
A. Facial / buccal/
B. Lingual
C. Mesial
D. Distal
19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?
A. Perio abscess like appearance
B. Displacement of fragments
20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should?
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth?
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality
23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
A. Decalcification of dentine
, B. Cleaning debris from root canal
24. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for
sedation?
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour
preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
25. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient?
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not
present
26. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would you
recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:**
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly
27. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows
that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the
routine dental therapy is:
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by,
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwig’s angina
29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture
All of these questions are based on what people remembered after exams SO IT CAN NOT BE RELIED ON 100%
but it is the only way to get an idea about the subjects, matters and topics you would be asked about. Please
add whatever you can after the exam ends and keep this sample in the hands of any who is sitting the exam. By
the way it took me about 4 months to get this organised the way it is now.
THANKS to all who have contributed to this and to all who will.
Hadi
1. For lower premolars, the purpose of inclining the handpiece lingually is to,
A. Avoid buccal pulp horn
B. Avoid lingual pulp horn
C. Remove unsupported enamel
D. Conserve lingual dentine
2. For an amalgam Restoration of weakened cusp you should,
A. reduce cusp by 2mm on a flat base for more resistance
B. reduce cusp by 2mm following the outline of the cusp
C. reduce 2mm for retention form
3. Before filling a class V abrasion cavity with GIC you should,
A. Clean with pumice, rubber cup, water and weak acid
B. Dry the cavity thoroughly before doing anything
C. Acid itch cavity then dry thoroughly
4. Which of the following statement about the defective margins of amalgam restoration
is true?
A. The larger the breakdown, the greater the chance of decay.
5. The retention Pin in an amalgam restoration should be placed,
A. Parallel to the outer wall
B. Parallel to the long axis of tooth
6. The most common cause of failure of the IDN “Inferior Dental Nerve” block is,
A. Injecting too low
B. Injecting too high
7. Which one of the following are not used in water fluoridation:
A. SnF2
B. 1.23% APF
C. H2SiF2
D. CaSiF2
E. 8% Stannous fluoride
8. The best way to clean cavity before the placement of GIC is,
,A. H2O2
B. Phosphoric Acid
C. Polyacrylic acid
9. The most mineralised part of dentine is,
A. Peritubular dentine
10. A 45 year old patient awoke with swollen face, puffiness around the eyes, and oedema
of the upper lip with redness and dryness. When he went to bed he had the swelling,
pain or dental complaints. Examination shows several deep silicate restorations in the
anterior teeth but examination is negative for caries, thermal tests, percussion,
palpation, pain, and periapical area of rarefaction. The patient’s temperature is
normal. The day before he had a series of gastrointestinal x-rays at the local hospital
and was given a clean bill of health. The condition is:
A. Acute periapical abscess
B. Angioneurotic oedema
C. Infectious mononucleosis
D. Acute maxillary sinusitis
E. Acute apical periodontitis
11. Internal resorption is,
A. Radiolucency over unaltered canal
B. Usually in a response to trauma
C. Radiopacity over unaltered canal
12. On replantation of an avulsed tooth could see,
A. Surface resorption, external resorption
B. Internal resorption
C. Inflammatory resorption
D. Replacement resorption
E. A, C and D
F. All of the above
13. The percentage of total dentine surface dentinal tubules make in 0.5mm away from
pulp is,
A. 20%
B. 50%
14. The junction between primary and secondary dentine is,
A. A reversal line
B. Sharp curvature
C. A resting line
D. A reduction in the number of tubules
,15. What is the correct sequence of events
A. Differentiation of odontoblast, elongation of enamel epithelium, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
B. Differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then enamel formation, elongation of
enamel epithelium.
C. Elongation of enamel epithelium, differentiation of odontoblast, dentine formation then
enamel formation.
16. What is the sequence from superficial to the deepest in dentine caries?
A. Zone of bacterial penetration, demineralisation, sclerosis, reparative dentine
B. Zone of bacterial penetration, reparative dentine, demineralisation, sclerosis.
C. Zone of bacterial penetration, sclerosis, reparative dentine, demineralisation.
17. The nerve supply of the pulp is composed of which type of nerve fibres?
A. Afferent & sympathetic
18. In which direction does the palatal root of the upper first molar usually curve towards?
A. Facial / buccal/
B. Lingual
C. Mesial
D. Distal
19. What is the common appearance of vertical tooth fracture?
A. Perio abscess like appearance
B. Displacement of fragments
20. Which of the following would be ONE possible indication for indirect pulp capping?
A. Where any further excavation of dentine would result in pulp exposure.
B. Removal of caries has exposed the pulp
C. When carious lesion has just penetrated DEJ
21. Following trauma to tooth, the next day there was no response to pulp tests you should?
A. Review again later
B. Start endodontic treatment
C. Extraction of tooth
22. What is the main purpose of performing pulp test on a recently traumatised tooth?
A. Obtain baseline response
B. Obtain accurate indication about pulp vitality
23. What is the main function of EDTA in endodontics?
A. Decalcification of dentine
, B. Cleaning debris from root canal
24. Which is NOT TRUE in relation to the prescription of 5mg or 10mg of diazepam for
sedation?
A. Patient commonly complain of post operative headache
B. An acceptable level of anxiolytic action is obtained when the drug is given one hour
preoperatively
C. There is a profound amnesic action and no side affects
D. Active metabolites can give a level of sedation up to 8 hours post operatively
E. As Benzodiazepine the action can be reversed with Flumazepil
25. Which of the following is TRUE in regards to high risk patient?
A. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is less infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
B. 0.1ml of blood from Hepatitis B carrier is more infective than 0.1ml of blood from HIV
patient
C. Level of virus are similar in the blood and saliva of HIV patient
D. Level of virus in the saliva is not significant for Hepatitis B patient
E. The presence of Hepatitis B core Antigen in the blood means that active disease is not
present
26. Your employer in an attempt to update office sterilization procedures; what would you
recommend as the BEST method to verify that sterilization has occurred:**
A. Use spore test daily
B. Use indicator strips in each load and colour change tape on each package
C. Use indicator strips daily and spore test weekly
D. Use colour change tape daily and spore test monthly
E. Use colour change tape in each load and spore tests weekly
27. A 65 year old woman arrived for dental therapy. The answered questionnaire shows
that she is suffering from severe cirrhosis. The problem that can be anticipated in the
routine dental therapy is:
A. Extreme susceptibility to pain
B. Tendency towards prolonged haemorrhage
C. Recurring oral infection
D. Increased tendency to syncope
E. Difficulty in achieving adequate local anaesthesia
28. Loss of sensation in the lower lip may be produced by,
A. Bell’s palsy
B. Traumatic bone cyst
C. Trigeminal neuralgia
D. Fracture in the mandible first molar region
E. Ludwig’s angina
29. Patient received heavy blow to the right body of the mandible sustaining a fracture
