COMSAE 110 2026 Ultimate Prep Pack – Real
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1. Bacillus anthracis is characterized as:
A. Gram-negative rods in chains
B. Gram-positive rods in chains
C. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
D. Gram-negative cocci in pairs
Explanation: Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive rod (bacillus) that forms chains.
It can manifest as cutaneous anthrax (black eschar) or pulmonary anthrax
(woolsorter's disease) with hemorrhagic mediastinitis.
2. Which of the following is the most common manifestation of Bacillus
anthracis infection?
A. Pulmonary anthrax with hemorrhagic mediastinitis
B. Cutaneous anthrax with black eschar formation
C. Gastrointestinal anthrax with bloody diarrhea
D. Meningeal anthrax with hemorrhagic meningitis
Explanation: Cutaneous anthrax is the most common form, presenting with a
painless black eschar. Pulmonary anthrax (inhalation) is less common but more
deadly.
3. Which of the following describes the transmission of Bacillus anthracis?
A. Person-to-person airborne transmission
B. Contact with contaminated animal products or soil
C. Fecal-oral route via contaminated food
D. Sexual transmission via bodily fluids
,Explanation: Bacillus anthracis is a zoonotic pathogen transmitted through contact
with infected animals, animal products (wool, hides), or contaminated soil. It is not
transmitted person-to-person.
4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is characterized as:
A. Gram-positive, coagulase-positive, catalase-positive cocci
B. Gram-positive, coagulase-negative, catalase-positive cocci
C. Gram-negative, coagulase-negative, catalase-negative bacilli
D. Gram-positive, coagulase-positive, catalase-negative cocci
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a gram-positive coccus that is
coagulase-negative and catalase-positive. It is a common skin flora and cause of
prosthetic device infections.
5. Which of the following is the most common cause of prosthetic valve
endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Enterococcus faecalis
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause of prosthetic
valve endocarditis and infections associated with indwelling medical devices due
to its ability to form biofilms.
6. Which of the following viruses infects the dorsal root ganglia?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation: Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) establishes latency in the dorsal root
ganglia after primary infection (chickenpox). Reactivation causes herpes zoster
(shingles) in a dermatomal distribution.
,7. A patient presents with a vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the
right T10 region. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) reactivation
B. Herpes zoster (shingles)
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Impetigo
Explanation: Herpes zoster (shingles) presents as a vesicular rash in a dermatomal
distribution due to reactivation of varicella-zoster virus from the dorsal root
ganglia.
8. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for herpes zoster?
A. Acyclovir
B. Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir)
C. Corticosteroids
D. Antibiotics
Explanation: Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir) is the first-
line treatment for herpes zoster, especially when started within 72 hours of rash
onset to reduce severity and duration.
9. Which of the following organisms is associated with "pencil-shaped"
macroconidia?
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Candida albicans
Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum produces "pencil-shaped" macroconidia.
It is a dermatophyte that causes tinea cruris, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis.
10. Which of the following antifungal agents works by inhibiting ergosterol
synthesis?
, A. Griseofulvin
B. Fluconazole (Azoles)
C. Nystatin
D. Flucytosine
Explanation: Azole antifungals (fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole) inhibit
the synthesis of ergosterol by blocking the enzyme lanosterol 14-α-demethylase,
which is essential for fungal cell membrane integrity.
11. A patient presents with tinea cruris. The organism is most likely:
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Candida albicans
Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum is a common cause of tinea cruris (jock
itch) along with Trichophyton rubrum. It produces "pencil-shaped" macroconidia.
12. Which of the following dermatophytes is transmitted from animals
(zoophilic)?
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Explanation: Microsporum canis is a zoophilic dermatophyte transmitted from
cats and dogs. It causes tinea corporis and tinea capitis, often fluorescing under
Wood's lamp.
13. Which of the following is a common cause of opportunistic fungal
infections in immunocompromised patients?
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Candida albicans
Exam with Verified Questions, Concepts & 100%
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1. Bacillus anthracis is characterized as:
A. Gram-negative rods in chains
B. Gram-positive rods in chains
C. Gram-positive cocci in clusters
D. Gram-negative cocci in pairs
Explanation: Bacillus anthracis is a gram-positive rod (bacillus) that forms chains.
It can manifest as cutaneous anthrax (black eschar) or pulmonary anthrax
(woolsorter's disease) with hemorrhagic mediastinitis.
2. Which of the following is the most common manifestation of Bacillus
anthracis infection?
A. Pulmonary anthrax with hemorrhagic mediastinitis
B. Cutaneous anthrax with black eschar formation
C. Gastrointestinal anthrax with bloody diarrhea
D. Meningeal anthrax with hemorrhagic meningitis
Explanation: Cutaneous anthrax is the most common form, presenting with a
painless black eschar. Pulmonary anthrax (inhalation) is less common but more
deadly.
3. Which of the following describes the transmission of Bacillus anthracis?
A. Person-to-person airborne transmission
B. Contact with contaminated animal products or soil
C. Fecal-oral route via contaminated food
D. Sexual transmission via bodily fluids
,Explanation: Bacillus anthracis is a zoonotic pathogen transmitted through contact
with infected animals, animal products (wool, hides), or contaminated soil. It is not
transmitted person-to-person.
4. Staphylococcus epidermidis is characterized as:
A. Gram-positive, coagulase-positive, catalase-positive cocci
B. Gram-positive, coagulase-negative, catalase-positive cocci
C. Gram-negative, coagulase-negative, catalase-negative bacilli
D. Gram-positive, coagulase-positive, catalase-negative cocci
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is a gram-positive coccus that is
coagulase-negative and catalase-positive. It is a common skin flora and cause of
prosthetic device infections.
5. Which of the following is the most common cause of prosthetic valve
endocarditis?
A. Staphylococcus aureus
B. Staphylococcus epidermidis
C. Streptococcus viridans
D. Enterococcus faecalis
Explanation: Staphylococcus epidermidis is the most common cause of prosthetic
valve endocarditis and infections associated with indwelling medical devices due
to its ability to form biofilms.
6. Which of the following viruses infects the dorsal root ganglia?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1)
B. Varicella-zoster virus (VZV)
C. Epstein-Barr virus (EBV)
D. Cytomegalovirus (CMV)
Explanation: Varicella-zoster virus (VZV) establishes latency in the dorsal root
ganglia after primary infection (chickenpox). Reactivation causes herpes zoster
(shingles) in a dermatomal distribution.
,7. A patient presents with a vesicular rash in a dermatomal distribution on the
right T10 region. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) reactivation
B. Herpes zoster (shingles)
C. Contact dermatitis
D. Impetigo
Explanation: Herpes zoster (shingles) presents as a vesicular rash in a dermatomal
distribution due to reactivation of varicella-zoster virus from the dorsal root
ganglia.
8. Which of the following is the first-line treatment for herpes zoster?
A. Acyclovir
B. Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir)
C. Corticosteroids
D. Antibiotics
Explanation: Antiviral therapy (acyclovir, valacyclovir, famciclovir) is the first-
line treatment for herpes zoster, especially when started within 72 hours of rash
onset to reduce severity and duration.
9. Which of the following organisms is associated with "pencil-shaped"
macroconidia?
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Candida albicans
Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum produces "pencil-shaped" macroconidia.
It is a dermatophyte that causes tinea cruris, tinea corporis, and tinea pedis.
10. Which of the following antifungal agents works by inhibiting ergosterol
synthesis?
, A. Griseofulvin
B. Fluconazole (Azoles)
C. Nystatin
D. Flucytosine
Explanation: Azole antifungals (fluconazole, itraconazole, voriconazole) inhibit
the synthesis of ergosterol by blocking the enzyme lanosterol 14-α-demethylase,
which is essential for fungal cell membrane integrity.
11. A patient presents with tinea cruris. The organism is most likely:
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Candida albicans
Explanation: Epidermophyton floccosum is a common cause of tinea cruris (jock
itch) along with Trichophyton rubrum. It produces "pencil-shaped" macroconidia.
12. Which of the following dermatophytes is transmitted from animals
(zoophilic)?
A. Trichophyton rubrum
B. Microsporum canis
C. Epidermophyton floccosum
D. Trichophyton mentagrophytes
Explanation: Microsporum canis is a zoophilic dermatophyte transmitted from
cats and dogs. It causes tinea corporis and tinea capitis, often fluorescing under
Wood's lamp.
13. Which of the following is a common cause of opportunistic fungal
infections in immunocompromised patients?
A. Epidermophyton floccosum
B. Candida albicans
