,TABLE OF CONTENT
EXAM PAGES
HESI V1 1-111
HESI V2 112-216
HESI V3 217-325
HESI V4 326-379
HESI V5 380-437
HESI V6 438-545
HESI V7 546-650
HESI V8 651-755
HESI V9 751-861
HESI V10 862-966
,VOL EXAM SECTIONS Q# TOPICS
Safe Care Environment, Health Promotion,
HESI 11 1- Psychosocial Integrity, Physiological Integrity
1
V1 Sections 300 (Parts 1-3), Medical-Surgical, Comprehensive
Review (Parts 1-2)
Medical-Surgical, Pharmacology, Maternity,
HESI 12 1-
2 Pediatrics, Psychiatric, Leadership &
V2 Sections 300
Management (all continued)
Medical-Surgical, Maternity, Pediatrics,
HESI 10 1- Psychiatric, Leadership, Pharmacology, Critical
3
V3 Sections 300 Care, Fundamentals, Community Health, Final
Review
Safe Care, Health Promotion, Pediatrics,
HESI 12 1- Psychiatric, Medical-Surgical, Leadership,
4
V4 Sections 300 Pharmacology, Fundamentals (continued),
Final Review
Fundamentals, Maternity, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
5 Pharmacology, Pediatrics, Psychiatric,
V5 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
Medical-Surgical, Maternity, Psychiatric,
HESI 12 1-
6 Leadership, Pharmacology, Pediatrics, Critical
V6 Sections 300
Care (all continued), Final Review
Management of Care, Safety, Pharmacology,
HESI 11 1- Psychiatric, Medical-Surgical (Parts 1-2),
7
V7 Sections 300 Fundamentals, Maternity, Leadership, Final
Review
,VOL EXAM SECTIONS Q# TOPICS
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
8 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Leadership,
V8 Sections 300
Maternity (all continued), Final Review
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
9 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Maternity,
V9 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
10 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Maternity,
V10 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
, HESI EXIT V1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative day 2 following abdominal surgery. The
client's vital signs are: temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F), heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate
22/min, blood pressure 98/62 mmHg. The surgical wound appears red, swollen, and has
purulent drainage. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A Administer the prescribed antipyretic medication.
B Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C Obtain a wound culture specimen.
D Apply a sterile dressing over the wound.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a surgical site infection with systemic manifestations
(fever, tachycardia, hypotension). The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider
immediately because this represents a potentially serious complication requiring prompt
medical intervention. While obtaining a wound culture (C) is important, it should be done after
the provider orders it. Administering antipyretics (A) and applying a sterile dressing (D) are
supportive measures but do not address the underlying infection .
2. A charge nurse is making assignments for a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to the most experienced registered nurse?
A A client with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration.
B A client with heart failure receiving IV furosemide.
C A client who is 2 hours post-return from cardiac catheterization with a femoral sheath in
place.
D A client with pneumonia requesting pain medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client who is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization with a femoral sheath in place
is at highest risk for complications including bleeding, hematoma, pseudoaneurysm, and
retroperitoneal bleeding. This client requires frequent assessment of the access site, distal
pulses, and vital signs, and needs an experienced nurse who can recognize early signs of
complications .
,3. A nurse is preparing a client for a procedure that requires informed consent. The client states,
"I don't understand what the doctor told me about the risks." Which action should the nurse
take?
A Have the client sign the consent form and explain the procedure later.
B Explain the procedure and risks to the client.
C Notify the healthcare provider that the client needs further explanation.
D Document that the client refused to sign the consent form.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is the healthcare provider's responsibility to obtain informed consent and explain
the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse can witness the signature but cannot
provide the initial explanation. If the client does not understand, the nurse must notify the
provider so they can provide additional clarification .
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A Administering oral medications.
B Assessing a client's wound.
C Measuring intake and output.
D Teaching a client about dietary restrictions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring intake and output is a routine task that falls within the scope of practice
for UAP. It does not require nursing judgment or assessment skills. Administering medications
(A) requires nursing knowledge and is not within UAP scope. Wound assessment (C) requires
clinical judgment and is a nursing responsibility. Client teaching (D) requires specialized
knowledge and is the nurse's responsibility .
5. A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit who has been placed in restraints.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A Assess the client's skin integrity and neurovascular status every 2 hours.
B Keep the restraints tightly secured to prevent the client from freeing themselves.
C Apply the restraints for a maximum of 8 hours before reassessing.
D Place the client in a supine position while in restraints.
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is in restraints, the most important intervention is frequent
assessment of skin integrity and neurovascular status to prevent complications such as pressure
injuries, nerve damage, and circulatory impairment. Restraints should be applied loosely
enough to allow two fingers to fit between the restraint and the client's skin. Restraints require
reassessment at least every 2 hours and a new order every 24 hours .
6. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric decompression. Which action
should the nurse take to verify correct placement of the tube?
A Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B Auscultate for air insufflation over the epigastric area.
C Observe for bubbling when the tube is placed in water.
D Measure the length of the tube from the nostril to the ear.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirating gastric contents and checking the pH is the most reliable method to
confirm NG tube placement. Gastric contents typically have a pH of 4 or less. Auscultation (B) is
no longer recommended as a sole method because it can be misleading. Observing for bubbling
(C) is not a reliable method. Measuring tube length (D) is used to estimate insertion depth but
does not confirm placement .
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of heart failure.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A "I will weigh myself every morning before breakfast."
B "I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,000 mg per day."
C "I can stop taking my diuretic if I feel better."
D "I will call my healthcare provider if I gain more than 2 pounds in a day."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with heart failure should not stop taking their diuretic medication without
consulting their healthcare provider, even if they feel better. Stopping diuretics can lead to fluid
overload and worsening heart failure. Weighing daily (A), limiting sodium (B), and reporting
weight gain (D) are all appropriate self-management strategies .
,8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. The
nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse do?
A Clamp the chest tube.
B Notify the healthcare provider.
C Assess for an air leak in the system.
D Increase the suction pressure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system.
The nurse should first assess for the source of the air leak by checking all connections and the
chest tube insertion site. Clamping the chest tube (A) is dangerous and should only be done
temporarily for specific reasons. Notifying the healthcare provider (B) is important after
assessment. Increasing suction (D) does not address the air leak .
9. A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of fall prevention strategies. Which statement
indicates the client understands the teaching?
A "I will keep my walker close to my bed so I can reach it easily."
B "I should wear socks without grips to help me slide my feet."
C "I will turn on the lights only when I need to get up at night."
D "I can leave my bedside table in the middle of the room."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping assistive devices close to the bed promotes safety and reduces fall risk.
Clients should wear non-skid footwear (B is incorrect) to prevent slips. Night lights should be
kept on (C is incorrect) to improve visibility. The bedside table should be within reach but not
obstructing the path (D is incorrect) .
10. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
B Start the transfusion at a rapid rate.
C Administer the blood through a 22-gauge IV catheter.
D Pre-medicate the client with diphenhydramine.
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: The first action before starting a blood transfusion is to verify the client's identity
using two identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) and match this to the blood product label
and the client's identification band. This prevents transfusion errors and hemolytic reactions.
The transfusion should be started slowly (B is incorrect) to monitor for reactions. A 20-gauge or
larger catheter is preferred (C is incorrect). Pre-medication (D) is not routine and should only be
done with a provider order.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A Urine output of 30 mL/hour.
B Cloudy urine with sediment.
C Client reports burning sensation.
D Catheter tubing is taped to the client's thigh.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client reporting a burning sensation with an indwelling catheter may indicate a
catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) or catheter irritation. This requires prompt
assessment and intervention. Urine output of 30 mL/hour (A) is adequate. Cloudy urine (B) may
indicate infection but requires further assessment. Taping the catheter to the thigh (D) is
appropriate to prevent traction.
12. A nurse is providing education to a client about the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler
(MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include?
A Inhale rapidly and deeply when pressing the canister.
B Shake the inhaler well before each use.
C Hold the breath for 10 seconds after inhaling.
D Exhale forcefully into the inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The inhaler should be shaken well before each use to ensure proper mixing of the
medication. The client should inhale slowly and deeply (A is incorrect), hold their breath for 5-
10 seconds (C is correct but B is the foundational step), and exhale away from the inhaler (D is
incorrect).
, 13. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of falls. Which environmental modification
should the nurse recommend to reduce fall risk?
A Remove throw rugs from the floor.
B Use a step stool to reach high shelves.
C Place electrical cords across walkways.
D Keep the home dimly lit to save energy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Removing throw rugs reduces the risk of tripping and falling. Step stools (B) increase
fall risk and should be avoided. Electrical cords across walkways (C) create a tripping hazard.
Adequate lighting (D is incorrect) is needed to prevent falls.
14. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare to administer a blood
transfusion. Which action by the newly licensed nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene?
A Checking the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
B Obtaining a 22-gauge IV catheter for blood administration.
C Using two nurses to verify the blood product and client identity.
D Staying with the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 22-gauge catheter is too small for blood transfusion; the recommended minimum
size is 20-gauge to prevent hemolysis of red blood cells and allow for adequate flow. The other
actions (A, C, D) are appropriate nursing practices.
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which action should
the nurse take?
A Remove the restraints every 4 hours for skin assessment.
B Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
C Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot.
D Apply the restraints tightly to prevent movement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should be secured with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid removal in
an emergency. Restraints should be removed every 2 hours (A is incorrect) for assessment. They
EXAM PAGES
HESI V1 1-111
HESI V2 112-216
HESI V3 217-325
HESI V4 326-379
HESI V5 380-437
HESI V6 438-545
HESI V7 546-650
HESI V8 651-755
HESI V9 751-861
HESI V10 862-966
,VOL EXAM SECTIONS Q# TOPICS
Safe Care Environment, Health Promotion,
HESI 11 1- Psychosocial Integrity, Physiological Integrity
1
V1 Sections 300 (Parts 1-3), Medical-Surgical, Comprehensive
Review (Parts 1-2)
Medical-Surgical, Pharmacology, Maternity,
HESI 12 1-
2 Pediatrics, Psychiatric, Leadership &
V2 Sections 300
Management (all continued)
Medical-Surgical, Maternity, Pediatrics,
HESI 10 1- Psychiatric, Leadership, Pharmacology, Critical
3
V3 Sections 300 Care, Fundamentals, Community Health, Final
Review
Safe Care, Health Promotion, Pediatrics,
HESI 12 1- Psychiatric, Medical-Surgical, Leadership,
4
V4 Sections 300 Pharmacology, Fundamentals (continued),
Final Review
Fundamentals, Maternity, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
5 Pharmacology, Pediatrics, Psychiatric,
V5 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
Medical-Surgical, Maternity, Psychiatric,
HESI 12 1-
6 Leadership, Pharmacology, Pediatrics, Critical
V6 Sections 300
Care (all continued), Final Review
Management of Care, Safety, Pharmacology,
HESI 11 1- Psychiatric, Medical-Surgical (Parts 1-2),
7
V7 Sections 300 Fundamentals, Maternity, Leadership, Final
Review
,VOL EXAM SECTIONS Q# TOPICS
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
8 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Leadership,
V8 Sections 300
Maternity (all continued), Final Review
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
9 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Maternity,
V9 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
Fundamentals, Medical-Surgical,
HESI 12 1-
10 Pharmacology, Psychiatric, Maternity,
V10 Sections 300
Leadership (all continued), Final Review
, HESI EXIT V1
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative day 2 following abdominal surgery. The
client's vital signs are: temperature 38.6°C (101.5°F), heart rate 110 bpm, respiratory rate
22/min, blood pressure 98/62 mmHg. The surgical wound appears red, swollen, and has
purulent drainage. Which action should the nurse take FIRST?
A Administer the prescribed antipyretic medication.
B Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
C Obtain a wound culture specimen.
D Apply a sterile dressing over the wound.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The client is exhibiting signs of a surgical site infection with systemic manifestations
(fever, tachycardia, hypotension). The nurse's priority is to notify the healthcare provider
immediately because this represents a potentially serious complication requiring prompt
medical intervention. While obtaining a wound culture (C) is important, it should be done after
the provider orders it. Administering antipyretics (A) and applying a sterile dressing (D) are
supportive measures but do not address the underlying infection .
2. A charge nurse is making assignments for a medical-surgical unit. Which client should be
assigned to the most experienced registered nurse?
A A client with diabetes mellitus requiring insulin administration.
B A client with heart failure receiving IV furosemide.
C A client who is 2 hours post-return from cardiac catheterization with a femoral sheath in
place.
D A client with pneumonia requesting pain medication.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The client who is 2 hours post-cardiac catheterization with a femoral sheath in place
is at highest risk for complications including bleeding, hematoma, pseudoaneurysm, and
retroperitoneal bleeding. This client requires frequent assessment of the access site, distal
pulses, and vital signs, and needs an experienced nurse who can recognize early signs of
complications .
,3. A nurse is preparing a client for a procedure that requires informed consent. The client states,
"I don't understand what the doctor told me about the risks." Which action should the nurse
take?
A Have the client sign the consent form and explain the procedure later.
B Explain the procedure and risks to the client.
C Notify the healthcare provider that the client needs further explanation.
D Document that the client refused to sign the consent form.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: It is the healthcare provider's responsibility to obtain informed consent and explain
the procedure, risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse can witness the signature but cannot
provide the initial explanation. If the client does not understand, the nurse must notify the
provider so they can provide additional clarification .
4. A nurse is delegating tasks to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP). Which task is
appropriate for the nurse to delegate?
A Administering oral medications.
B Assessing a client's wound.
C Measuring intake and output.
D Teaching a client about dietary restrictions.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Measuring intake and output is a routine task that falls within the scope of practice
for UAP. It does not require nursing judgment or assessment skills. Administering medications
(A) requires nursing knowledge and is not within UAP scope. Wound assessment (C) requires
clinical judgment and is a nursing responsibility. Client teaching (D) requires specialized
knowledge and is the nurse's responsibility .
5. A nurse is caring for a client on a medical-surgical unit who has been placed in restraints.
Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in the plan of care?
A Assess the client's skin integrity and neurovascular status every 2 hours.
B Keep the restraints tightly secured to prevent the client from freeing themselves.
C Apply the restraints for a maximum of 8 hours before reassessing.
D Place the client in a supine position while in restraints.
,Correct Answer: A
Rationale: When a client is in restraints, the most important intervention is frequent
assessment of skin integrity and neurovascular status to prevent complications such as pressure
injuries, nerve damage, and circulatory impairment. Restraints should be applied loosely
enough to allow two fingers to fit between the restraint and the client's skin. Restraints require
reassessment at least every 2 hours and a new order every 24 hours .
6. A nurse is preparing to insert a nasogastric (NG) tube for gastric decompression. Which action
should the nurse take to verify correct placement of the tube?
A Aspirate gastric contents and check the pH.
B Auscultate for air insufflation over the epigastric area.
C Observe for bubbling when the tube is placed in water.
D Measure the length of the tube from the nostril to the ear.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Aspirating gastric contents and checking the pH is the most reliable method to
confirm NG tube placement. Gastric contents typically have a pH of 4 or less. Auscultation (B) is
no longer recommended as a sole method because it can be misleading. Observing for bubbling
(C) is not a reliable method. Measuring tube length (D) is used to estimate insertion depth but
does not confirm placement .
7. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new diagnosis of heart failure.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
A "I will weigh myself every morning before breakfast."
B "I should limit my sodium intake to less than 2,000 mg per day."
C "I can stop taking my diuretic if I feel better."
D "I will call my healthcare provider if I gain more than 2 pounds in a day."
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Clients with heart failure should not stop taking their diuretic medication without
consulting their healthcare provider, even if they feel better. Stopping diuretics can lead to fluid
overload and worsening heart failure. Weighing daily (A), limiting sodium (B), and reporting
weight gain (D) are all appropriate self-management strategies .
,8. A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a closed drainage system. The
nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber. What should the nurse do?
A Clamp the chest tube.
B Notify the healthcare provider.
C Assess for an air leak in the system.
D Increase the suction pressure.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water seal chamber indicates an air leak in the system.
The nurse should first assess for the source of the air leak by checking all connections and the
chest tube insertion site. Clamping the chest tube (A) is dangerous and should only be done
temporarily for specific reasons. Notifying the healthcare provider (B) is important after
assessment. Increasing suction (D) does not address the air leak .
9. A nurse is evaluating a client's understanding of fall prevention strategies. Which statement
indicates the client understands the teaching?
A "I will keep my walker close to my bed so I can reach it easily."
B "I should wear socks without grips to help me slide my feet."
C "I will turn on the lights only when I need to get up at night."
D "I can leave my bedside table in the middle of the room."
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Keeping assistive devices close to the bed promotes safety and reduces fall risk.
Clients should wear non-skid footwear (B is incorrect) to prevent slips. Night lights should be
kept on (C is incorrect) to improve visibility. The bedside table should be within reach but not
obstructing the path (D is incorrect) .
10. A nurse is preparing to administer a blood transfusion to a client. Which action should the
nurse take FIRST?
A Verify the client's identity using two identifiers.
B Start the transfusion at a rapid rate.
C Administer the blood through a 22-gauge IV catheter.
D Pre-medicate the client with diphenhydramine.
Correct Answer: A
,Rationale: The first action before starting a blood transfusion is to verify the client's identity
using two identifiers (e.g., name and date of birth) and match this to the blood product label
and the client's identification band. This prevents transfusion errors and hemolytic reactions.
The transfusion should be started slowly (B is incorrect) to monitor for reactions. A 20-gauge or
larger catheter is preferred (C is incorrect). Pre-medication (D) is not routine and should only be
done with a provider order.
11. A nurse is caring for a client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which finding requires
immediate intervention?
A Urine output of 30 mL/hour.
B Cloudy urine with sediment.
C Client reports burning sensation.
D Catheter tubing is taped to the client's thigh.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: A client reporting a burning sensation with an indwelling catheter may indicate a
catheter-associated urinary tract infection (CAUTI) or catheter irritation. This requires prompt
assessment and intervention. Urine output of 30 mL/hour (A) is adequate. Cloudy urine (B) may
indicate infection but requires further assessment. Taping the catheter to the thigh (D) is
appropriate to prevent traction.
12. A nurse is providing education to a client about the proper use of a metered-dose inhaler
(MDI). Which instruction should the nurse include?
A Inhale rapidly and deeply when pressing the canister.
B Shake the inhaler well before each use.
C Hold the breath for 10 seconds after inhaling.
D Exhale forcefully into the inhaler.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: The inhaler should be shaken well before each use to ensure proper mixing of the
medication. The client should inhale slowly and deeply (A is incorrect), hold their breath for 5-
10 seconds (C is correct but B is the foundational step), and exhale away from the inhaler (D is
incorrect).
, 13. A nurse is assessing a client who has a history of falls. Which environmental modification
should the nurse recommend to reduce fall risk?
A Remove throw rugs from the floor.
B Use a step stool to reach high shelves.
C Place electrical cords across walkways.
D Keep the home dimly lit to save energy.
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Removing throw rugs reduces the risk of tripping and falling. Step stools (B) increase
fall risk and should be avoided. Electrical cords across walkways (C) create a tripping hazard.
Adequate lighting (D is incorrect) is needed to prevent falls.
14. A charge nurse is observing a newly licensed nurse prepare to administer a blood
transfusion. Which action by the newly licensed nurse requires the charge nurse to intervene?
A Checking the client's vital signs before starting the transfusion.
B Obtaining a 22-gauge IV catheter for blood administration.
C Using two nurses to verify the blood product and client identity.
D Staying with the client for the first 15 minutes of the transfusion.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A 22-gauge catheter is too small for blood transfusion; the recommended minimum
size is 20-gauge to prevent hemolysis of red blood cells and allow for adequate flow. The other
actions (A, C, D) are appropriate nursing practices.
15. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for wrist restraints. Which action should
the nurse take?
A Remove the restraints every 4 hours for skin assessment.
B Tie the restraints to the side rails of the bed.
C Secure the restraints with a quick-release knot.
D Apply the restraints tightly to prevent movement.
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Restraints should be secured with a quick-release knot to allow for rapid removal in
an emergency. Restraints should be removed every 2 hours (A is incorrect) for assessment. They
