UTA CP2 NURS 5338 – Exam Questions and
Answers with Rationales Latest Version Top
Rated A+
Content Areas Covered
• Advanced Health Assessment
• Differential Diagnosis
• Clinical Decision Making
• Diagnostic Testing
• Evidence-Based Practice
• Pharmacology
• Chronic Disease Management
• Acute Care Conditions
• Women's Health
• Men's Health
• Pediatric Assessment
• Geriatric Assessment
• Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
• Documentation & Clinical Reasoning
• Patient Education & Professional Practice
Question 1
A 58-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm that
began 30 minutes ago. Which action should the nurse practitioner prioritize?
A. Prescribe a proton pump inhibitor
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
C. Schedule an outpatient stress test
D. Order a chest CT scan
Correct Answer: B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
Rationale:
An ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes for patients with suspected acute coronary
syndrome. It helps identify ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other ischemic
,changes requiring urgent treatment. A stress test is not appropriate during active chest pain, and a
CT scan is not the initial diagnostic test for suspected myocardial infarction.
Question 2
Which laboratory value is most useful for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
B. HbA1c 6.8%
C. Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
D. LDL 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B. HbA1c 6.8%
Rationale:
An HbA1c of 6.5% or greater is one of the accepted diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.
The other values do not establish a diagnosis of diabetes.
Question 3
A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 168/98 mm Hg despite lifestyle
modifications. Which medication class is commonly recommended as an initial treatment for
many patients with primary hypertension?
A. Broad-spectrum antibiotic
B. Thiazide diuretic
C. Opioid analgesic
D. Antiviral medication
Correct Answer: B. Thiazide diuretic
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics are one of the commonly recommended first-line medication classes for many
adults with uncomplicated primary hypertension, along with ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and calcium
channel blockers, depending on the patient's clinical profile.
,Question 4
Which finding is most consistent with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Macrocytosis
B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
C. Elevated vitamin B12 level
D. Increased reticulocyte count in untreated disease
Correct Answer: B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
Rationale:
Iron-deficiency anemia classically presents with microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells due to
impaired hemoglobin synthesis.
Question 5
A 65-year-old patient with COPD presents with worsening dyspnea and increased sputum
production. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stable COPD
B. Acute COPD exacerbation
C. Asthma remission
D. Allergic rhinitis
Correct Answer: B. Acute COPD exacerbation
Rationale:
Increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence are classic features of an acute COPD
exacerbation and may require bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and possibly antibiotics.
Question 6
Which patient should receive immediate emergency evaluation?
, A. A patient with seasonal allergies
B. A patient with sudden unilateral facial droop and slurred speech
C. A patient with chronic knee pain
D. A patient requesting a medication refill
Correct Answer: B. A patient with sudden unilateral facial droop and slurred speech
Rationale:
These are classic symptoms of an acute stroke. Rapid evaluation and treatment are critical to
improve outcomes.
Question 7
Which thyroid laboratory pattern is most consistent with primary hypothyroidism?
A. Low TSH and high free T4
B. High TSH and low free T4
C. Low TSH and normal T4
D. Normal TSH and elevated T4
Correct Answer: B. High TSH and low free T4
Rationale:
In primary hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland fails to produce adequate thyroid hormone,
resulting in elevated TSH through pituitary feedback.
Question 8
A patient has dysuria, urinary frequency, and positive nitrites on urinalysis. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis
C. Glomerulonephritis
Answers with Rationales Latest Version Top
Rated A+
Content Areas Covered
• Advanced Health Assessment
• Differential Diagnosis
• Clinical Decision Making
• Diagnostic Testing
• Evidence-Based Practice
• Pharmacology
• Chronic Disease Management
• Acute Care Conditions
• Women's Health
• Men's Health
• Pediatric Assessment
• Geriatric Assessment
• Health Promotion & Disease Prevention
• Documentation & Clinical Reasoning
• Patient Education & Professional Practice
Question 1
A 58-year-old man presents with crushing substernal chest pain radiating to his left arm that
began 30 minutes ago. Which action should the nurse practitioner prioritize?
A. Prescribe a proton pump inhibitor
B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
C. Schedule an outpatient stress test
D. Order a chest CT scan
Correct Answer: B. Obtain a 12-lead ECG immediately
Rationale:
An ECG should be obtained within 10 minutes for patients with suspected acute coronary
syndrome. It helps identify ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI) or other ischemic
,changes requiring urgent treatment. A stress test is not appropriate during active chest pain, and a
CT scan is not the initial diagnostic test for suspected myocardial infarction.
Question 2
Which laboratory value is most useful for diagnosing diabetes mellitus?
A. Hemoglobin 11 g/dL
B. HbA1c 6.8%
C. Potassium 4.1 mEq/L
D. LDL 110 mg/dL
Correct Answer: B. HbA1c 6.8%
Rationale:
An HbA1c of 6.5% or greater is one of the accepted diagnostic criteria for diabetes mellitus.
The other values do not establish a diagnosis of diabetes.
Question 3
A patient with hypertension has a blood pressure of 168/98 mm Hg despite lifestyle
modifications. Which medication class is commonly recommended as an initial treatment for
many patients with primary hypertension?
A. Broad-spectrum antibiotic
B. Thiazide diuretic
C. Opioid analgesic
D. Antiviral medication
Correct Answer: B. Thiazide diuretic
Rationale:
Thiazide diuretics are one of the commonly recommended first-line medication classes for many
adults with uncomplicated primary hypertension, along with ACE inhibitors, ARBs, and calcium
channel blockers, depending on the patient's clinical profile.
,Question 4
Which finding is most consistent with iron-deficiency anemia?
A. Macrocytosis
B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
C. Elevated vitamin B12 level
D. Increased reticulocyte count in untreated disease
Correct Answer: B. Microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells
Rationale:
Iron-deficiency anemia classically presents with microcytic, hypochromic red blood cells due to
impaired hemoglobin synthesis.
Question 5
A 65-year-old patient with COPD presents with worsening dyspnea and increased sputum
production. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Stable COPD
B. Acute COPD exacerbation
C. Asthma remission
D. Allergic rhinitis
Correct Answer: B. Acute COPD exacerbation
Rationale:
Increased dyspnea, sputum volume, and sputum purulence are classic features of an acute COPD
exacerbation and may require bronchodilators, corticosteroids, and possibly antibiotics.
Question 6
Which patient should receive immediate emergency evaluation?
, A. A patient with seasonal allergies
B. A patient with sudden unilateral facial droop and slurred speech
C. A patient with chronic knee pain
D. A patient requesting a medication refill
Correct Answer: B. A patient with sudden unilateral facial droop and slurred speech
Rationale:
These are classic symptoms of an acute stroke. Rapid evaluation and treatment are critical to
improve outcomes.
Question 7
Which thyroid laboratory pattern is most consistent with primary hypothyroidism?
A. Low TSH and high free T4
B. High TSH and low free T4
C. Low TSH and normal T4
D. Normal TSH and elevated T4
Correct Answer: B. High TSH and low free T4
Rationale:
In primary hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland fails to produce adequate thyroid hormone,
resulting in elevated TSH through pituitary feedback.
Question 8
A patient has dysuria, urinary frequency, and positive nitrites on urinalysis. The most likely
diagnosis is:
A. Nephrolithiasis
B. Acute uncomplicated cystitis
C. Glomerulonephritis
