1|Page SUCCESS!!!
,BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales (Verified Answers) 100%
Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide – Nightingale College.
1. A 77-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital confused, nauseated, vomiting, and complaining of a
headache with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question is the priority for the nurse to ask on
admission?
A. "Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?"
B. "Does the client take aspirin and if so, how much?"
C. "Does the client take nitroglycerin?"
D. "Does the client take digitalis?"
Answer: D. Symptoms of confusion, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia are classic signs of digitalis
toxicity, especially in elderly clients who are particularly susceptible to cardiac glycoside buildup.
2. A client on telemetry has uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Based on this
finding, the nurse anticipates assisting with which treatment?
A. Administer lidocaine 75 mg intravenous push
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Defibrillate the client at 200 joules
D. Administer atropine 0.5 mg intravenous push
Answer: B. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with rapid
ventricular response to convert the rhythm back to normal sinus. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias,
defibrillation for pulseless rhythms, and atropine for symptomatic bradycardia.
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,3. A client who is one day post-acute myocardial infarction is having eight premature ventricular contractions
per minute while receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
B. Administer a lidocaine bolus as prescribed
C. Assess the client's level of consciousness
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Answer: A. PVCs after an MI indicate ventricular irritability which can be exacerbated by hypoxia. Increasing
oxygen delivery is the priority to address potential hypoxemia before implementing other interventions.
4. A client with heart failure reports a 3-pound weight gain in 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer furosemide as prescribed
B. Assess for peripheral edema
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: B. Weight gain in heart failure suggests fluid retention; assessing edema provides immediate clinical
data to guide further action. The nurse must gather assessment data before implementing interventions or
notifying the provider.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation reports dizziness. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
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, B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B. Dizziness in atrial fibrillation may indicate an irregular or rapid heart rate requiring immediate
assessment since the ventricular rate directly affects cardiac output and cerebral perfusion.
6. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: B. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the standard monitoring test for warfarin therapy with a
therapeutic range for atrial fibrillation typically 2.0-3.0.
7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
A. Take the medication at bedtime
B. Take the medication first thing in the morning
C. Take with a high-potassium meal
D. Take on an empty stomach
Answer: B. Furosemide should be taken in the morning to avoid nocturia and sleep disturbance since the
diuretic effect peaks within 1-2 hours.
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
,BSN HESI 266 Med Surg Exam (Latest ) Questions
& Correct Answers With Rationales (Verified Answers) 100%
Guaranteed Pass || Complete A+ Guide – Nightingale College.
1. A 77-year-old female client is admitted to the hospital confused, nauseated, vomiting, and complaining of a
headache with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question is the priority for the nurse to ask on
admission?
A. "Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?"
B. "Does the client take aspirin and if so, how much?"
C. "Does the client take nitroglycerin?"
D. "Does the client take digitalis?"
Answer: D. Symptoms of confusion, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia are classic signs of digitalis
toxicity, especially in elderly clients who are particularly susceptible to cardiac glycoside buildup.
2. A client on telemetry has uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with a rapid ventricular response. Based on this
finding, the nurse anticipates assisting with which treatment?
A. Administer lidocaine 75 mg intravenous push
B. Perform synchronized cardioversion
C. Defibrillate the client at 200 joules
D. Administer atropine 0.5 mg intravenous push
Answer: B. Synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice for uncontrolled atrial fibrillation with rapid
ventricular response to convert the rhythm back to normal sinus. Lidocaine is used for ventricular arrhythmias,
defibrillation for pulseless rhythms, and atropine for symptomatic bradycardia.
2|Page SUCCESS!!!
,3. A client who is one day post-acute myocardial infarction is having eight premature ventricular contractions
per minute while receiving oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula. What should the nurse do first?
A. Increase the client's oxygen flow rate
B. Administer a lidocaine bolus as prescribed
C. Assess the client's level of consciousness
D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
Answer: A. PVCs after an MI indicate ventricular irritability which can be exacerbated by hypoxia. Increasing
oxygen delivery is the priority to address potential hypoxemia before implementing other interventions.
4. A client with heart failure reports a 3-pound weight gain in 24 hours. What should the nurse do first?
A. Administer furosemide as prescribed
B. Assess for peripheral edema
C. Restrict fluid intake
D. Notify the healthcare provider
Answer: B. Weight gain in heart failure suggests fluid retention; assessing edema provides immediate clinical
data to guide further action. The nurse must gather assessment data before implementing interventions or
notifying the provider.
5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation reports dizziness. What should the nurse assess first?
A. Blood pressure
3|Page SUCCESS!!!
, B. Heart rate
C. Oxygen saturation
D. Blood glucose
Answer: B. Dizziness in atrial fibrillation may indicate an irregular or rapid heart rate requiring immediate
assessment since the ventricular rate directly affects cardiac output and cerebral perfusion.
6. A client with atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor?
A. Platelet count
B. INR
C. aPTT
D. Hemoglobin
Answer: B. INR (International Normalized Ratio) is the standard monitoring test for warfarin therapy with a
therapeutic range for atrial fibrillation typically 2.0-3.0.
7. A client with heart failure is prescribed furosemide. Which instruction should the nurse reinforce?
A. Take the medication at bedtime
B. Take the medication first thing in the morning
C. Take with a high-potassium meal
D. Take on an empty stomach
Answer: B. Furosemide should be taken in the morning to avoid nocturia and sleep disturbance since the
diuretic effect peaks within 1-2 hours.
4|Page SUCCESS!!!
