A 58-year-old man presents to the primary care clinic complaining of progressively
worsening exertional chest discomfort over the past three months. He describes the pain as
a substernal pressure that develops while climbing stairs, lasts approximately five minutes,
and resolves with rest. His medical history includes hypertension, hyperlipidemia, and a 35-
pack-year smoking history. Which diagnosis is most consistent with this clinical
presentation?
A. Acute pericarditis
B. Pulmonary embolism
C. Stable angina pectoris
D. Aortic dissection
Answer: C. Stable angina pectoris
Rationale: Stable angina presents as predictable substernal chest pressure precipitated by
exertion or emotional stress and relieved by rest or nitroglycerin. The patient's
cardiovascular risk factors further support coronary artery disease as the underlying
etiology.
Question 2
A 67-year-old woman reports sudden onset of left-sided facial drooping, slurred speech, and
weakness of the left arm that began approximately one hour ago. Which action represents
the highest clinical priority?
A. Schedule an outpatient MRI within one week.
B. Prescribe aspirin and discharge home.
C. Activate the acute stroke protocol and obtain an emergent non-contrast CT scan of
the head.
D. Observe the patient for twenty-four hours before further evaluation.
Answer: C. Activate the acute stroke protocol and obtain an emergent non-contrast
CT scan of the head.
Rationale: Acute focal neurological deficits require immediate stroke evaluation. A non-
contrast CT scan rapidly differentiates ischemic from hemorrhagic stroke and determines
eligibility for reperfusion therapy.
,Question 3
A 42-year-old woman presents with fatigue, cold intolerance, constipation, dry skin, and an
unexplained 12-pound weight gain over four months. Which laboratory study would most
strongly support the suspected diagnosis?
A. Elevated free T4 with suppressed TSH
B. Elevated cortisol level
C. Elevated TSH with decreased free T4
D. Elevated serum calcium
Answer: C. Elevated TSH with decreased free T4
Rationale: Primary hypothyroidism is characterized by decreased thyroid hormone
production, resulting in elevated thyroid-stimulating hormone through negative feedback.
Question 4
A nurse practitioner evaluates a client complaining of fever, productive cough with rust-
colored sputum, pleuritic chest pain, and shortness of breath. Which physical examination
finding is most consistent with lobar pneumonia?
A. Hyperactive bowel sounds.
B. Localized crackles with dullness to percussion over the affected lung.
C. Generalized urticaria.
D. Bilateral lower-extremity edema.
Answer: B. Localized crackles with dullness to percussion over the affected lung.
Rationale: Lobar pneumonia produces alveolar consolidation, resulting in localized
crackles, bronchial breath sounds, increased tactile fremitus, and dullness to percussion.
Question 5
A 24-year-old woman presents with dysuria, urinary frequency, urinary urgency, and
suprapubic discomfort without fever or flank pain. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Acute pyelonephritis.
B. Nephrolithiasis.
, C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis.
D. Glomerulonephritis.
Answer: C. Acute uncomplicated cystitis
Rationale: Dysuria, frequency, urgency, and suprapubic pain without systemic symptoms
are classic findings of acute uncomplicated lower urinary tract infection.
Question 6
A 72-year-old man presents to the clinic with progressive shortness of breath over the past
week. He reports needing three pillows to sleep comfortably and awakening at night
gasping for air. Physical examination reveals bilateral basilar crackles, jugular venous
distention, and 2+ pitting edema of both lower extremities. Which diagnosis is most
consistent with these findings?
A. Community-acquired pneumonia
B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease exacerbation
C. Pulmonary embolism
D. Acute decompensated heart failure
Answer: D. Acute decompensated heart failure
Rationale: Orthopnea, paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea, pulmonary crackles, jugular venous
distention, and peripheral edema are classic manifestations of worsening heart failure due
to fluid overload.
Question 7
A 56-year-old woman with long-standing hypertension presents with a severe headache,
blurred vision, and blood pressure of 224/126 mm Hg. Funduscopic examination reveals
retinal hemorrhages. Which action is the highest priority?
A. Begin oral antihypertensive medication and schedule follow-up next week.
B. Repeat the blood pressure after 30 minutes of rest.
C. Arrange immediate emergency evaluation and controlled intravenous blood
pressure reduction for hypertensive emergency.
D. Recommend sodium restriction and home blood pressure monitoring.
Answer: C. Arrange immediate emergency evaluation and controlled intravenous
blood pressure reduction for hypertensive emergency.