RNSG 1517 A Maternity Exam | Complete
Questions with Correct Answers and Detailed
Rationales - Latest Update 2026
RNSG 1517 A MATERNITY EXAM
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & ASSESSMENT
1. Naegele's rule is used to calculate the estimated date of delivery by:
• A. Adding 3 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period,
then subtracting 1 year
• B. Adding 9 months to the date of conception only
• C. Counting 280 days from the date of the first missed period
• D. Adding 6 months to the last menstrual period
Answer: A. Adding 3 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period, then subtracting 1 year (or adjusting the year as needed)
Rationale: Naegele's rule takes the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts
3 months, and adds 7 days (and 1 year if needed), producing an estimated 280-
day gestation from LMP .
2. Fundal height measurement in centimeters correlates approximately with
gestational age in weeks between which weeks of pregnancy?
, • A. 12 to 16 weeks
• B. 20 to 34 weeks
• C. 36 to 40 weeks only
• D. It never correlates with gestational age
Answer: B. 20 to 34 weeks
Rationale: Between approximately 20 and 34 weeks, fundal height in centimeters
roughly equals gestational age in weeks, making it a useful screening tool for fetal
growth .
3. Quickening refers to:
• A. The mother's first perception of fetal movement
• B. The moment of implantation
• C. The onset of true labor contractions
• D. Rupture of membranes
Answer: A. The mother's first perception of fetal movement
Rationale: Quickening is the maternal sensation of first fetal movement, typically
felt between 16 and 20 weeks gestation, and is considered a probable sign of
pregnancy .
4. Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy rather
than a probable or positive sign?
• A. Positive serum hCG
• B. Ballottement
• C. Amenorrhea and nausea
• D. Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound
Answer: C. Amenorrhea and nausea
Rationale: Presumptive signs (amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes) are subjective
and can have other causes; probable signs (hCG, Ballottement) are more
,objective; positive signs (fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization) confirm
pregnancy .
5. Chadwick's sign refers to:
• A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to increased vascularity
• B. Softening of the cervix
• C. Softening of the lower uterine segment
• D. Irregular painless uterine contractions
Answer: A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to increased
vascularity
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is the bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina,
and vulva caused by increased vascularity and pelvic congestion during
pregnancy .
6. During what phase of the menstrual cycle is an egg (ovum) released?
• A. Gestation
• B. Ovulation
• C. Luteal
• D. Incubation
Answer: B. Ovulation
Rationale: Ovulation is the phase in the menstrual cycle when a mature egg is
released from the ovarian follicle, typically occurring around day 14 of a 28-day
cycle.
7. Describe the relationship between ovulation and basal body temperature
changes in a menstrual cycle.
• A. Basal body temperature is unrelated to ovulation
• B. Basal body temperature remains constant throughout the cycle
, • C. Basal body temperature decreases after ovulation due to hormonal
changes
• D. Basal body temperature rises after ovulation due to increased
progesterone levels
Answer: D. Basal body temperature rises after ovulation due to increased
progesterone levels
Rationale: Progesterone released after ovulation has a thermogenic effect,
causing a slight but sustained rise in basal body temperature that persists until
menstruation .
8. The purpose of a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is
primarily to assess risk for:
• A. Neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities
• B. Preterm labor only
• C. Postpartum hemorrhage risk
• D. Maternal cardiac disease
Answer: A. Neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities
Rationale: MSAFP levels that are abnormally high or low can indicate an increased
risk for neural tube defects (elevated) or certain chromosomal abnormalities such
as trisomy 21 (decreased), prompting further diagnostic testing .
9. A patient is 6 weeks pregnant. They have had a previous spontaneous
abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with
the birth of a stillborn girl. What is the patient's obstetrical history using the
GTPAL system?
• A. 3-0-1-1-0
• B. 2-1-0-1-0
• C. 3-1-0-1-0
• D. 2-0-0-1-1
Questions with Correct Answers and Detailed
Rationales - Latest Update 2026
RNSG 1517 A MATERNITY EXAM
SECTION 1: ANTEPARTUM CARE & ASSESSMENT
1. Naegele's rule is used to calculate the estimated date of delivery by:
• A. Adding 3 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual period,
then subtracting 1 year
• B. Adding 9 months to the date of conception only
• C. Counting 280 days from the date of the first missed period
• D. Adding 6 months to the last menstrual period
Answer: A. Adding 3 months and 7 days to the first day of the last menstrual
period, then subtracting 1 year (or adjusting the year as needed)
Rationale: Naegele's rule takes the first day of the last menstrual period, subtracts
3 months, and adds 7 days (and 1 year if needed), producing an estimated 280-
day gestation from LMP .
2. Fundal height measurement in centimeters correlates approximately with
gestational age in weeks between which weeks of pregnancy?
, • A. 12 to 16 weeks
• B. 20 to 34 weeks
• C. 36 to 40 weeks only
• D. It never correlates with gestational age
Answer: B. 20 to 34 weeks
Rationale: Between approximately 20 and 34 weeks, fundal height in centimeters
roughly equals gestational age in weeks, making it a useful screening tool for fetal
growth .
3. Quickening refers to:
• A. The mother's first perception of fetal movement
• B. The moment of implantation
• C. The onset of true labor contractions
• D. Rupture of membranes
Answer: A. The mother's first perception of fetal movement
Rationale: Quickening is the maternal sensation of first fetal movement, typically
felt between 16 and 20 weeks gestation, and is considered a probable sign of
pregnancy .
4. Which of the following is classified as a presumptive sign of pregnancy rather
than a probable or positive sign?
• A. Positive serum hCG
• B. Ballottement
• C. Amenorrhea and nausea
• D. Visualization of the fetus via ultrasound
Answer: C. Amenorrhea and nausea
Rationale: Presumptive signs (amenorrhea, nausea, breast changes) are subjective
and can have other causes; probable signs (hCG, Ballottement) are more
,objective; positive signs (fetal heartbeat, ultrasound visualization) confirm
pregnancy .
5. Chadwick's sign refers to:
• A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to increased vascularity
• B. Softening of the cervix
• C. Softening of the lower uterine segment
• D. Irregular painless uterine contractions
Answer: A. Bluish discoloration of the cervix and vagina due to increased
vascularity
Rationale: Chadwick's sign is the bluish-purple discoloration of the cervix, vagina,
and vulva caused by increased vascularity and pelvic congestion during
pregnancy .
6. During what phase of the menstrual cycle is an egg (ovum) released?
• A. Gestation
• B. Ovulation
• C. Luteal
• D. Incubation
Answer: B. Ovulation
Rationale: Ovulation is the phase in the menstrual cycle when a mature egg is
released from the ovarian follicle, typically occurring around day 14 of a 28-day
cycle.
7. Describe the relationship between ovulation and basal body temperature
changes in a menstrual cycle.
• A. Basal body temperature is unrelated to ovulation
• B. Basal body temperature remains constant throughout the cycle
, • C. Basal body temperature decreases after ovulation due to hormonal
changes
• D. Basal body temperature rises after ovulation due to increased
progesterone levels
Answer: D. Basal body temperature rises after ovulation due to increased
progesterone levels
Rationale: Progesterone released after ovulation has a thermogenic effect,
causing a slight but sustained rise in basal body temperature that persists until
menstruation .
8. The purpose of a maternal serum alpha-fetoprotein (MSAFP) screening is
primarily to assess risk for:
• A. Neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities
• B. Preterm labor only
• C. Postpartum hemorrhage risk
• D. Maternal cardiac disease
Answer: A. Neural tube defects and certain chromosomal abnormalities
Rationale: MSAFP levels that are abnormally high or low can indicate an increased
risk for neural tube defects (elevated) or certain chromosomal abnormalities such
as trisomy 21 (decreased), prompting further diagnostic testing .
9. A patient is 6 weeks pregnant. They have had a previous spontaneous
abortion at 14 weeks of gestation and a pregnancy that ended at 38 weeks with
the birth of a stillborn girl. What is the patient's obstetrical history using the
GTPAL system?
• A. 3-0-1-1-0
• B. 2-1-0-1-0
• C. 3-1-0-1-0
• D. 2-0-0-1-1
