[Test Bank Maternity and Pediatric Nursing 3rd Edition
By Susan Ricci, Theresa Kyle, and Susan Carman]
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Reproductive System and Genetics
2. Conception and Fetal Development
3. Antepartum Care and Complications
4. Intrapartum Care and Labor Management
5. Postpartum Care and Adaptation
6. Neonatal Health and High-Risk Newborn Care
7. Growth and Development of the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
8. Pediatric Health Promotion and Preventive Care
9. Pediatric Respiratory and Cardiovascular Disorders
10. Pediatric Hematologic, Oncologic, and Chronic Conditions
1. A 28-week gestation client is admitted with preeclampsia. The nurse notes blood pressure of
160/110 mmHg and hyperreflexia. Which medication is the priority for preventing seizure
activity?
A. Hydralazine
B. Magnesium sulfate
, C. Labetalol
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the standard of care for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Hydralazine and labetalol are antihypertensives used to lower blood pressure, and calcium
gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, not a primary preventative measure.
2. A primiparous client in the active phase of labor requests pain relief. Assessment shows 6 cm
dilation and a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 bpm. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer an epidural anesthesia
B. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section
C. Administer morphine sulfate IV
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Answer: A
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia is the gold standard for pain management in the active phase of
labor and is appropriate at 6 cm dilation. Morphine is less effective during active labor due to
neonatal respiratory depression, and there is no indication of fetal distress requiring C-section
or Trendelenburg.
3. A 4-year-old child is diagnosed with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which clinical
manifestation warrants immediate nursing intervention?
A. Low-grade fever
B. Increased respiratory effort and nasal flaring
C. Barking cough at night
D. Clear lung sounds
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Increased respiratory effort and nasal flaring indicate respiratory distress and
potential airway obstruction in a child with croup. While a barking cough and fever are classic
signs of croup, respiratory distress is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate
stabilization.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn 2 hours after delivery. The infant’s respiratory rate is 65
breaths/min, and there is mild intercostal retractions. What is the nurse’s initial priority?
A. Notify the NICU team for admission
B. Maintain a clear airway and monitor closely
C. Administer blow-by oxygen
D. Feed the infant to calm them
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is common in the first few hours of life.
Providing a clear airway and observation is the priority; aggressive interventions like NICU
admission or oxygen are only warranted if symptoms worsen or do not resolve.
5. A postpartum client is experiencing excessive uterine bleeding 2 hours after delivery. Fundal
assessment reveals a boggy uterus. What is the first nursing action?
A. Administer methylergonovine
B. Massage the fundus
C. Increase IV fluid rate
D. Prepare for a D&C
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage. Immediate fundal massage is the first-line intervention to stimulate uterine
contraction and constrict vessels.
6. A parent reports their 18-month-old child has begun to express "no" to everything. What is the
best nursing guidance?
, A. Encourage the parent to ignore the behavior
B. Explain this is normal autonomy-seeking behavior
C. Suggest a neurological evaluation
D. Advise the parent to restrict the child’s choices
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Negativism is a developmental milestone in toddlerhood (Erikson’s stage of
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt). It is a normal attempt to gain independence and should be
managed with patience rather than restriction or medical testing.
7. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse
should avoid which procedure?
A. Vital sign assessment
B. Vaginal examination
C. Fetal heart rate monitoring
D. IV line insertion
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: These symptoms are classic for placenta previa. A vaginal exam could disrupt the
placenta and cause catastrophic hemorrhage. All other options are standard care, but vaginal
exams are strictly contraindicated until placenta previa is ruled out via ultrasound.
8. A pediatric client with cystic fibrosis (CF) is scheduled for a sweat chloride test. The parent asks
what this test measures. The nurse explains it measures:
A. The amount of bacteria in the sweat
B. The concentration of chloride in the sweat
C. The child’s ability to digest fats
D. The presence of cystic fibrosis genes
By Susan Ricci, Theresa Kyle, and Susan Carman]
EXAM with Questions and Answers/Plus a Rationale
Updated 2026 A+/Instant Download PDF
EXAM COVERAGE
1. Reproductive System and Genetics
2. Conception and Fetal Development
3. Antepartum Care and Complications
4. Intrapartum Care and Labor Management
5. Postpartum Care and Adaptation
6. Neonatal Health and High-Risk Newborn Care
7. Growth and Development of the Infant, Child, and Adolescent
8. Pediatric Health Promotion and Preventive Care
9. Pediatric Respiratory and Cardiovascular Disorders
10. Pediatric Hematologic, Oncologic, and Chronic Conditions
1. A 28-week gestation client is admitted with preeclampsia. The nurse notes blood pressure of
160/110 mmHg and hyperreflexia. Which medication is the priority for preventing seizure
activity?
A. Hydralazine
B. Magnesium sulfate
, C. Labetalol
D. Calcium gluconate
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is the standard of care for seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia.
Hydralazine and labetalol are antihypertensives used to lower blood pressure, and calcium
gluconate is the antidote for magnesium toxicity, not a primary preventative measure.
2. A primiparous client in the active phase of labor requests pain relief. Assessment shows 6 cm
dilation and a fetal heart rate (FHR) of 140 bpm. Which intervention is most appropriate?
A. Administer an epidural anesthesia
B. Prepare for an emergency cesarean section
C. Administer morphine sulfate IV
D. Place the client in Trendelenburg position
Answer: A
CORRECT ANSWER : A
Rationale: Epidural anesthesia is the gold standard for pain management in the active phase of
labor and is appropriate at 6 cm dilation. Morphine is less effective during active labor due to
neonatal respiratory depression, and there is no indication of fetal distress requiring C-section
or Trendelenburg.
3. A 4-year-old child is diagnosed with acute laryngotracheobronchitis (croup). Which clinical
manifestation warrants immediate nursing intervention?
A. Low-grade fever
B. Increased respiratory effort and nasal flaring
C. Barking cough at night
D. Clear lung sounds
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
, Rationale: Increased respiratory effort and nasal flaring indicate respiratory distress and
potential airway obstruction in a child with croup. While a barking cough and fever are classic
signs of croup, respiratory distress is a life-threatening complication requiring immediate
stabilization.
4. A nurse is assessing a newborn 2 hours after delivery. The infant’s respiratory rate is 65
breaths/min, and there is mild intercostal retractions. What is the nurse’s initial priority?
A. Notify the NICU team for admission
B. Maintain a clear airway and monitor closely
C. Administer blow-by oxygen
D. Feed the infant to calm them
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Transient tachypnea of the newborn (TTN) is common in the first few hours of life.
Providing a clear airway and observation is the priority; aggressive interventions like NICU
admission or oxygen are only warranted if symptoms worsen or do not resolve.
5. A postpartum client is experiencing excessive uterine bleeding 2 hours after delivery. Fundal
assessment reveals a boggy uterus. What is the first nursing action?
A. Administer methylergonovine
B. Massage the fundus
C. Increase IV fluid rate
D. Prepare for a D&C
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: A boggy uterus indicates uterine atony, the most common cause of postpartum
hemorrhage. Immediate fundal massage is the first-line intervention to stimulate uterine
contraction and constrict vessels.
6. A parent reports their 18-month-old child has begun to express "no" to everything. What is the
best nursing guidance?
, A. Encourage the parent to ignore the behavior
B. Explain this is normal autonomy-seeking behavior
C. Suggest a neurological evaluation
D. Advise the parent to restrict the child’s choices
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: Negativism is a developmental milestone in toddlerhood (Erikson’s stage of
Autonomy vs. Shame and Doubt). It is a normal attempt to gain independence and should be
managed with patience rather than restriction or medical testing.
7. A client at 34 weeks gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. The nurse
should avoid which procedure?
A. Vital sign assessment
B. Vaginal examination
C. Fetal heart rate monitoring
D. IV line insertion
Answer: B
CORRECT ANSWER : B
Rationale: These symptoms are classic for placenta previa. A vaginal exam could disrupt the
placenta and cause catastrophic hemorrhage. All other options are standard care, but vaginal
exams are strictly contraindicated until placenta previa is ruled out via ultrasound.
8. A pediatric client with cystic fibrosis (CF) is scheduled for a sweat chloride test. The parent asks
what this test measures. The nurse explains it measures:
A. The amount of bacteria in the sweat
B. The concentration of chloride in the sweat
C. The child’s ability to digest fats
D. The presence of cystic fibrosis genes
