Florida Massage Therapist Licensing
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
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1. A client presents with acute torticollis, reporting that they woke up with a
sharp, unilateral neck pain and an inability to turn their head to the left.
Palpation reveals a hypertonic and tender sternocleidomastoid muscle on
the right side. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
therapeutic approach for this client?
A. Apply deep, sustained static pressure to the transverse processes of C1
and C2 to release the suboccipital muscles.
B. Perform rapid, high-velocity low-amplitude thrusts to the cervical spine
to restore range of motion.
C. Initiate treatment with superficial effleurage and gentle stretching of the
involved muscle to reduce spasm.
D. Administer cryotherapy followed by percussive tapotement to the
affected area to increase blood flow.
Answer: C
*Rationale: The correct initial approach for acute torticollis is to reduce
muscle spasm and pain using gentle, superficial techniques such as
effleurage and mild stretching. Deep pressure (A) or high-velocity thrusts
(B) are contraindicated in acute spasm and could exacerbate the condition
or cause injury. Cryotherapy may be beneficial, but percussive tapotement
(D) would increase muscle contraction and is not appropriate for acute
spasm. *
,2. A massage therapist is working on a client’s hamstring group. To isolate the
biceps femoris for specific stretching, the therapist must position the
client's hip and knee in a manner that maximizes the tension on this
muscle. What is the correct joint positioning to achieve this?
A. Hip flexion with knee extension and hip adduction.
B. Hip flexion with knee flexion and hip lateral rotation.
C. Hip extension with knee flexion and hip medial rotation.
D. Hip flexion with knee extension and hip medial rotation.
Answer: A
*Rationale: The biceps femoris is a two-joint muscle that crosses both the
hip and knee. To stretch it effectively, the hip must be flexed and the knee
extended. Additionally, because the biceps femoris inserts on the lateral
aspect of the fibula and laterally rotates the tibia when the knee is flexed,
its stretch is maximized by adducting the hip, which places a greater
tensile force on its lateral attachment. *
3. In the context of a standard Florida massage therapy session, which of the
following actions constitutes a violation of the standard of care regarding
draping?
A. Draping the gluteal cleft and the genitalia at all times during the session.
B. Exposing the gluteal muscles to perform deep tissue work on the
piriformis.
C. Adjusting the drape to expose the anterior chest of a male client for
pectoralis work.
D. Using the drape to stabilize the client’s arm during a stretching protocol.
Answer: B
*Rationale: In Florida, while the gluteal muscles can be worked on, the
gluteal cleft must remain draped at all times. Exposing the gluteal muscles
is permissible provided the client has given informed consent and the
work is for a therapeutic purpose, but exposing the gluteal cleft is a
violation of the standard of care. Exposing the anterior chest of a male (C)
is generally permissible, while draping the genitalia (A) is mandatory.
Using the drape for stabilization (D) is a safe and standard practice. *
,4. Which of the following anatomical structures is primarily responsible for the
initial phase of shoulder abduction, from 0 to 15 degrees?
A. The infraspinatus muscle.
B. The supraspinatus muscle.
C. The subscapularis muscle.
D. The teres minor muscle.
Answer: B
*Rationale: The supraspinatus muscle initiates the first 15 degrees of
shoulder abduction. It acts as a primary mover for this initial phase. The
deltoid then takes over as the prime mover for abduction beyond 15
degrees up to 90 degrees. The infraspinatus (A) and teres minor (D) are
lateral rotators, and the subscapularis (C) is a medial rotator of the
shoulder. *
5. A therapist notices that a client's skin remains indented after palpation for a
brief period. This clinical sign is most characteristic of which of the following
conditions?
A. Dehydration.
B. Edema.
C. Hyperthyroidism.
D. Jaundice.
Answer: B
*Rationale: Pitting edema is characterized by skin that remains indented
or depressed after the application of firm pressure. This occurs due to an
accumulation of interstitial fluid. Dehydration (A) would cause skin to tent
or lack turgor. Jaundice (D) is characterized by yellowing of the skin and
sclera, and hyperthyroidism (C) can cause warm, moist skin, but not
typically pitting. *
6. The latissimus dorsi muscle performs all of the following actions at the
shoulder joint EXCEPT:
A. Extension.
B. Abduction.
C. Adduction.
, D. Medial rotation.
Answer: B
*Rationale: The latissimus dorsi is a powerful adductor, extensor, and
medial rotator of the shoulder joint. It does not perform abduction, which
is the movement of the arm away from the midline. The supraspinatus
and deltoid are primarily responsible for abduction. *
7. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis in the left leg requests a
massage to alleviate muscle tension in their lower back and right leg. Which
of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the therapist?
A. Proceed with the full-body massage, avoiding the left leg entirely.
B. Proceed with the massage, using light, superficial strokes on the left leg
only.
C. Proceed with the massage on the back and right leg only, avoiding the
left leg.
D. Proceed with the full-body massage, using deep stripping techniques on
the left leg to prevent muscle atrophy.
Answer: C
*Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an absolute contraindication
for massage on the affected limb. Massage could dislodge a thrombus,
leading to a pulmonary embolism. The therapist should avoid the affected
leg entirely but can safely work on other areas (back and right leg). Even
light strokes (B) on the affected limb are contraindicated due to the risk of
thrombus mobilization. *
8. Which of the following best describes the location of the popliteal pulse?
A. Medial to the patellar tendon, behind the knee.
B. Lateral to the patellar tendon, behind the knee.
C. Deep within the popliteal fossa, superficial to the popliteal artery.
D. Superficial to the popliteal fascia, on the posterior aspect of the knee.
Answer: A
*Rationale: The popliteal pulse is located deep within the popliteal fossa,
but it is palpated by pressing firmly medial to the patellar tendon, behind
Examination Questions And Correct
Answers (Verified Answers) Plus
Rationales 2026 Q&A | Instant
Download Pdf
1. A client presents with acute torticollis, reporting that they woke up with a
sharp, unilateral neck pain and an inability to turn their head to the left.
Palpation reveals a hypertonic and tender sternocleidomastoid muscle on
the right side. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial
therapeutic approach for this client?
A. Apply deep, sustained static pressure to the transverse processes of C1
and C2 to release the suboccipital muscles.
B. Perform rapid, high-velocity low-amplitude thrusts to the cervical spine
to restore range of motion.
C. Initiate treatment with superficial effleurage and gentle stretching of the
involved muscle to reduce spasm.
D. Administer cryotherapy followed by percussive tapotement to the
affected area to increase blood flow.
Answer: C
*Rationale: The correct initial approach for acute torticollis is to reduce
muscle spasm and pain using gentle, superficial techniques such as
effleurage and mild stretching. Deep pressure (A) or high-velocity thrusts
(B) are contraindicated in acute spasm and could exacerbate the condition
or cause injury. Cryotherapy may be beneficial, but percussive tapotement
(D) would increase muscle contraction and is not appropriate for acute
spasm. *
,2. A massage therapist is working on a client’s hamstring group. To isolate the
biceps femoris for specific stretching, the therapist must position the
client's hip and knee in a manner that maximizes the tension on this
muscle. What is the correct joint positioning to achieve this?
A. Hip flexion with knee extension and hip adduction.
B. Hip flexion with knee flexion and hip lateral rotation.
C. Hip extension with knee flexion and hip medial rotation.
D. Hip flexion with knee extension and hip medial rotation.
Answer: A
*Rationale: The biceps femoris is a two-joint muscle that crosses both the
hip and knee. To stretch it effectively, the hip must be flexed and the knee
extended. Additionally, because the biceps femoris inserts on the lateral
aspect of the fibula and laterally rotates the tibia when the knee is flexed,
its stretch is maximized by adducting the hip, which places a greater
tensile force on its lateral attachment. *
3. In the context of a standard Florida massage therapy session, which of the
following actions constitutes a violation of the standard of care regarding
draping?
A. Draping the gluteal cleft and the genitalia at all times during the session.
B. Exposing the gluteal muscles to perform deep tissue work on the
piriformis.
C. Adjusting the drape to expose the anterior chest of a male client for
pectoralis work.
D. Using the drape to stabilize the client’s arm during a stretching protocol.
Answer: B
*Rationale: In Florida, while the gluteal muscles can be worked on, the
gluteal cleft must remain draped at all times. Exposing the gluteal muscles
is permissible provided the client has given informed consent and the
work is for a therapeutic purpose, but exposing the gluteal cleft is a
violation of the standard of care. Exposing the anterior chest of a male (C)
is generally permissible, while draping the genitalia (A) is mandatory.
Using the drape for stabilization (D) is a safe and standard practice. *
,4. Which of the following anatomical structures is primarily responsible for the
initial phase of shoulder abduction, from 0 to 15 degrees?
A. The infraspinatus muscle.
B. The supraspinatus muscle.
C. The subscapularis muscle.
D. The teres minor muscle.
Answer: B
*Rationale: The supraspinatus muscle initiates the first 15 degrees of
shoulder abduction. It acts as a primary mover for this initial phase. The
deltoid then takes over as the prime mover for abduction beyond 15
degrees up to 90 degrees. The infraspinatus (A) and teres minor (D) are
lateral rotators, and the subscapularis (C) is a medial rotator of the
shoulder. *
5. A therapist notices that a client's skin remains indented after palpation for a
brief period. This clinical sign is most characteristic of which of the following
conditions?
A. Dehydration.
B. Edema.
C. Hyperthyroidism.
D. Jaundice.
Answer: B
*Rationale: Pitting edema is characterized by skin that remains indented
or depressed after the application of firm pressure. This occurs due to an
accumulation of interstitial fluid. Dehydration (A) would cause skin to tent
or lack turgor. Jaundice (D) is characterized by yellowing of the skin and
sclera, and hyperthyroidism (C) can cause warm, moist skin, but not
typically pitting. *
6. The latissimus dorsi muscle performs all of the following actions at the
shoulder joint EXCEPT:
A. Extension.
B. Abduction.
C. Adduction.
, D. Medial rotation.
Answer: B
*Rationale: The latissimus dorsi is a powerful adductor, extensor, and
medial rotator of the shoulder joint. It does not perform abduction, which
is the movement of the arm away from the midline. The supraspinatus
and deltoid are primarily responsible for abduction. *
7. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis in the left leg requests a
massage to alleviate muscle tension in their lower back and right leg. Which
of the following is the most appropriate course of action for the therapist?
A. Proceed with the full-body massage, avoiding the left leg entirely.
B. Proceed with the massage, using light, superficial strokes on the left leg
only.
C. Proceed with the massage on the back and right leg only, avoiding the
left leg.
D. Proceed with the full-body massage, using deep stripping techniques on
the left leg to prevent muscle atrophy.
Answer: C
*Rationale: Deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is an absolute contraindication
for massage on the affected limb. Massage could dislodge a thrombus,
leading to a pulmonary embolism. The therapist should avoid the affected
leg entirely but can safely work on other areas (back and right leg). Even
light strokes (B) on the affected limb are contraindicated due to the risk of
thrombus mobilization. *
8. Which of the following best describes the location of the popliteal pulse?
A. Medial to the patellar tendon, behind the knee.
B. Lateral to the patellar tendon, behind the knee.
C. Deep within the popliteal fossa, superficial to the popliteal artery.
D. Superficial to the popliteal fascia, on the posterior aspect of the knee.
Answer: A
*Rationale: The popliteal pulse is located deep within the popliteal fossa,
but it is palpated by pressing firmly medial to the patellar tendon, behind
