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NSG 550 Exam 2 | Advanced Pathophysiology Wilkes University | Q & A | 2026/2027 Edition (PDF)

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — Verified NSG 550 Exam 2 | Advanced Pathophysiology | Wilkes University | Q & A | 2026/2027 Edition (PDF) resource with actual exam questions, NGN‑style case studies, and complete rationales. Coverage includes cellular injury, inflammation, genetic disorders, multisystem pathophysiology, diagnostic reasoning, patient safety, and evidence‑based practice. Emphasis on clinical decision‑making, differential diagnoses, disease progression, and professional role development. Designed for guaranteed 100% correctness and exam alignment, this study guide is ideal for students searching NSG 550 Exam 2 PDF, Wilkes University Nursing Study Guide, NSG 550 Test Bank, NSG 550 Verified Answers, NSG 550 Exam Prep 2026/2027, Advanced Pathophysiology Workbook, Disease Mechanisms Study Guide, Patient Safety Exam Prep, Evidence‑Based Nursing Workbook, and Wilkes University Exams.

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,NSG 550 Exam 2 | Advanced Pathophysiology
Wilkes University | Q & A | 2026/2027 Edition (PDF)
1. Which of the following best describes the primary purpose of pulmonary function testing?**

A) To directly measure the partial pressure of oxygen in arterial blood

B) To evaluate pulmonary reserve, response to bronchodilators, and differentiate restrictive from
obstructive disease

C) To visualize structural abnormalities of the lung parenchyma

D) To diagnose pulmonary embolism through indirect measurement of airflow



Correct Answer: To evaluate pulmonary reserve, response to bronchodilators, and differentiate
restrictive from obstructive disease



Rationale: Pulmonary function tests evaluate the general health and capability of the lungs (pulmonary
reserve), assess response to bronchodilator therapy, and differentiate between restrictive and
obstructive chronic pulmonary diseases. They do not measure arterial blood gases, visualize structures,
or diagnose pulmonary embolism. Spirometry is the cornerstone of pulmonary function testing.



**2. A 58-year-old patient's pulmonary function test reveals an FEV1/FVC ratio of 65% following
bronchodilator administration. What is the most appropriate diagnostic interpretation?**

A) Normal pulmonary function

B) Restrictive lung disease

C) Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

D) Mixed restrictive and obstructive pattern



Correct Answer: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)



Rationale: Diagnosis of COPD requires demonstrating persistent airflow limitation based on spirometry
testing, specifically an FEV1/FVC ratio of less than 70% following bronchodilator administration. A
restrictive pattern would show a normal or elevated FEV1/FVC ratio with reduced FVC. The post-
bronchodilator ratio confirms irreversible airflow obstruction characteristic of COPD.

,**3. What is the expected improvement in airflow rate following bronchodilator administration that
indicates a significant response?**

A) 5% increase

B) 10% increase

C) 20% increase

D) 30% increase



Correct Answer: 20% increase



Rationale: A bronchodilator can help increase airflow rate by approximately 20% in responsive patients.
This degree of improvement indicates reversible airway obstruction and helps differentiate asthma from
COPD. An improvement of this magnitude typically warrants prescription of bronchodilator therapy and
suggests a spastic component to the obstructive disease.



**4. Which of the following factors is NOT a source of variability in pulmonary function test results?**

A) Age

B) Sex

C) Time of day

D) Height



Correct Answer: Time of day



Rationale: Variability in pulmonary function tests is influenced by age (lung function naturally declines
with age), sex (women typically have smaller lung volumes), height (taller individuals generally have
larger lung volumes), and weight (obesity can restrict lung expansion). Time of day is not a recognized
source of significant variability in PFT interpretation. These factors are used to calculate predicted
normal values.



**5. What is the normal range for arterial pH in an arterial blood gas analysis?**

A) 7.25 – 7.35

B) 7.35 – 7.45

C) 7.45 – 7.55

, D) 7.55 – 7.65



Correct Answer: 7.35 – 7.45



Rationale: The normal range for arterial pH is 7.35 to 7.45. Values below 7.35 indicate acidemia, while
values above 7.45 indicate alkalemia. The body maintains pH within this narrow range through
respiratory and renal compensation mechanisms. Understanding normal pH is fundamental to
interpreting arterial blood gases and identifying acid-base disorders.



**6. In arterial blood gas analysis, which component reflects the metabolic (renal) component of acid-
base homeostasis?**

A) pH

B) PCO2

C) HCO3

D) PO2



Correct Answer: HCO3



Rationale: HCO3 (bicarbonate) is indicative of the metabolic (renal) component of acid-base
homeostasis. PCO2 reflects the respiratory (ventilatory) component. pH is the overall result of both
components working together. PO2 measures the adequacy of oxygenation. The normal range for HCO3
is 22-26 mEq/L.



**7. A patient with COPD presents with confusion and lethargy. Arterial blood gas shows pH 7.30, PCO2
60 mmHg, and HCO3 28 mEq/L. Which acid-base disorder is present?**

A) Acute respiratory alkalosis with metabolic compensation

B) Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation

C) Metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation

D) Metabolic alkalosis with respiratory compensation



Correct Answer: Acute respiratory acidosis with metabolic compensation

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