NURS 306 Quiz 10 V1 | NURS 306 OB |
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS306 Quiz
10) | West Coast University
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks of gestation who is receiving magnesium sulfate
for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a priority to
report to the provider?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Respirations 10/min
C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
D. Blood pressure 150/95 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant used to prevent
seizures in preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates magnesium toxicity, as the
normal range is typically above 12/min. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion
and notify the provider to prevent respiratory arrest.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for
nifedipine. Which of the following outcomes indicates the medication is effective?
A. Decreased uterine contractions
B. Increased fetal heart rate
,C. Decreased cervical dilation
D. Decreased blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used off-label as a tocolytic to suppress
preterm labor. The goal of administering this medication in this context is to stop uterine
contractions and delay delivery. Successful therapy is evidenced by a reduction in the
frequency and intensity of contractions.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone to a client who is at 30 weeks of
gestation and in preterm labor. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
A. To promote fetal lung maturity
B. To stop uterine contractions
C. To increase maternal blood sugar
D. To prevent maternal hemorrhage
Answer: A
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to pregnant clients in preterm labor to
stimulate the production of surfactant. This process enhances fetal lung maturity and
reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. It is typically
administered in two doses, 24 hours apart, when delivery is anticipated within 7 days.
, 4. A client at 38 weeks of gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Prosthetic valve failure
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third trimester is the
classic sign of placenta previa. Unlike abruptio placentae, which typically presents with
intense abdominal pain and dark red blood, previa involves the placenta covering the
cervical os. Vaginal exams are strictly contraindicated in these clients until the placental
location is confirmed by ultrasound.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with suspected HELLP syndrome.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Increased hemoglobin
B. Increased platelets
C. Elevated liver enzymes
D. Decreased creatinine
Answer: C
Actual Q&A with Rationale (NURS306 Quiz
10) | West Coast University
1. A nurse is caring for a client at 34 weeks of gestation who is receiving magnesium sulfate
for preeclampsia. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a priority to
report to the provider?
A. Urine output of 40 mL/hr
B. Respirations 10/min
C. Deep tendon reflexes +2
D. Blood pressure 150/95 mmHg
Answer: B
Rationale: Magnesium sulfate is a central nervous system depressant used to prevent
seizures in preeclampsia. A respiratory rate of 10/min indicates magnesium toxicity, as the
normal range is typically above 12/min. The nurse should immediately stop the infusion
and notify the provider to prevent respiratory arrest.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has a prescription for
nifedipine. Which of the following outcomes indicates the medication is effective?
A. Decreased uterine contractions
B. Increased fetal heart rate
,C. Decreased cervical dilation
D. Decreased blood pressure
Answer: A
Rationale: Nifedipine is a calcium channel blocker used off-label as a tocolytic to suppress
preterm labor. The goal of administering this medication in this context is to stop uterine
contractions and delay delivery. Successful therapy is evidenced by a reduction in the
frequency and intensity of contractions.
3. A nurse is preparing to administer betamethasone to a client who is at 30 weeks of
gestation and in preterm labor. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
A. To promote fetal lung maturity
B. To stop uterine contractions
C. To increase maternal blood sugar
D. To prevent maternal hemorrhage
Answer: A
Rationale: Betamethasone is a corticosteroid given to pregnant clients in preterm labor to
stimulate the production of surfactant. This process enhances fetal lung maturity and
reduces the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the neonate. It is typically
administered in two doses, 24 hours apart, when delivery is anticipated within 7 days.
, 4. A client at 38 weeks of gestation presents with painless, bright red vaginal bleeding. Which
of the following conditions should the nurse suspect?
A. Abruptio placentae
B. Placenta previa
C. Prosthetic valve failure
D. Preeclampsia
Answer: B
Rationale: Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding during the second or third trimester is the
classic sign of placenta previa. Unlike abruptio placentae, which typically presents with
intense abdominal pain and dark red blood, previa involves the placenta covering the
cervical os. Vaginal exams are strictly contraindicated in these clients until the placental
location is confirmed by ultrasound.
5. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client with suspected HELLP syndrome.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A. Increased hemoglobin
B. Increased platelets
C. Elevated liver enzymes
D. Decreased creatinine
Answer: C
