PRACTICE EXAMINATION: 100 MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH
CORRECT ANSWERS, AND CLINICAL RATIONALES COVERING ALL
TESTED DOMAINS (ETIOLOGY, NEUROBIOLOGY, DSM-5 DIAGNOSTIC
CRITERIA, EVIDENCE-BASED CBT PROTOCOLS, EXPOSURE THERAPY,
ERP, COGNITIVE RESTRUCTURING, AND TREATMENT OUTCOMES)
1. Which of the following is the primary feature distinguishing fear from
anxiety?
A) Fear is a future-oriented mood state while anxiety is a present-oriented
emotional response
B) Fear involves activation of the sympathetic nervous system while anxiety does
not
C) Fear is a present-oriented emotional response to immediate threat while
anxiety is a future-oriented mood state
D) Fear is always pathological while anxiety is always adaptive
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Fear is a present-oriented emotional response
characterized by immediate fight-or-flight activation, while anxiety is a future-
oriented mood state involving apprehension about potential threats that may or
may not materialize.
2. According to Barlow's triple vulnerability model, which type of vulnerability
involves heritable contributions to neuroticism?
A) Specific psychological vulnerability
B) Generalized biological vulnerability
C) Generalized psychological vulnerability
D) Environmental vulnerability
,Correct Answer: B Rationale: Generalized biological vulnerability refers to
heritable genetic contributions to neuroticism and negative affect, which create a
predisposition to developing anxiety disorders when combined with other
vulnerabilities.
3. In the treatment of Panic Disorder, interoceptive exposure primarily targets:
A) External environmental triggers
B) Internal physical sensations associated with panic
C) Social evaluation concerns
D) Traumatic memories
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Interoceptive exposure involves deliberately
inducing feared physical sensations (e.g., hyperventilation, spinning) to help
patients habituate to internal bodily cues that trigger panic attacks.
4. Which of the following is a hallmark symptom of Generalized Anxiety Disorder
according to the DSM-5?
A) Recurrent unexpected panic attacks
B) Excessive anxiety and worry occurring more days than not for at least 6 months
C) Persistent fear of social situations
D) Recurrent distressing dreams about a traumatic event
Correct Answer: B Rationale: GAD is characterized by excessive, uncontrollable
worry about multiple domains occurring more days than not for at least 6 months,
accompanied by symptoms like restlessness, fatigue, and muscle tension.
5. Cognitive Restructuring in panic disorder treatment involves:
A) Having patients confront feared situations
B) Teaching relaxation breathing techniques
C) Recognizing cognitive errors and generating alternative explanations for feared
,sensations
D) Processing traumatic memories through eye movements
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Cognitive restructuring helps patients identify
catastrophic misinterpretations of bodily sensations and develop alternative, more
realistic explanations for these sensations.
6. What is the recommended dosage for Exposure and Response Prevention
(ERP) treatment for OCD?
A) 15 two-hour treatment sessions with a minimum of 3 per week
B) 10 one-hour sessions weekly for 3 months
C) 20 thirty-minute sessions daily for 2 weeks
D) 5 four-hour sessions over one weekend
Correct Answer: A Rationale: The evidence-based ERP protocol for OCD involves
15 two-hour treatment sessions with a minimum of 3 sessions per week to
achieve optimal therapeutic response.
7. Which of the following is NOT considered an intrusion symptom of PTSD?
A) Distressing memories of the traumatic event
B) Distressing dreams related to the event
C) Flashbacks where the individual feels the event is recurring
D) Depressed mood
Correct Answer: D Rationale: Depressed mood is a negative alteration in cognition
and mood symptom cluster of PTSD, not an intrusion symptom. Intrusion
symptoms include involuntary memories, dreams, and flashbacks.
8. Stress-Inoculation Training is categorized as which type of treatment for
PTSD?
, A) Cognitive Interventions
B) EMDR
C) Coping Skills Focused Treatments
D) Pharmacological Interventions
Correct Answer: C Rationale: Stress-Inoculation Training is a coping skills focused
treatment that teaches patients anxiety management techniques including
breathing, relaxation, and cognitive coping strategies.
9. In treatment for Social Anxiety Disorder, exposure post-processing involves:
A) Reviewing whether goals were attained
B) Discussing any new or unexpected automatic thoughts
C) Having the client re-rate beliefs in automatic thoughts
D) All of the above
Correct Answer: D Rationale: Exposure post-processing is a comprehensive review
process that includes evaluating goal attainment, discussing unexpected thoughts,
and having clients re-evaluate their automatic thoughts.
10. Individuals with Social Anxiety Disorder have been found to have negative
self-evaluations associated with images related to:
A) Future academic success
B) Early adverse social events such as being bullied
C) Physical health concerns
D) Financial instability
Correct Answer: B Rationale: Research indicates that individuals with social
anxiety disorder maintain negative self-images linked to early adverse social
experiences like bullying, which perpetuate social fears.