HESI RN FUNDAMENTALS ALL STUDY LATEST
EXAMS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What
action should the nurse take?
A) Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.
B) Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
C) Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption.
D) Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF - ✔✔A)
Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein
Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because
they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for
growth and cell repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is
essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The
client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary
✔✔A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge.
Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his
wound care after discharge? The client
A) asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
,B) states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
C) demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
D) has all the necessary supplies for wound care. - ✔✔C) demonstrates the wound care
procedure correctly
A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the
client's ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is
important, but is less of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the
client's ability to complete the wound care
✔✔Immediate defibrillation
Explanation:
Defibrillation is used during pulseless ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and
asystole (cardiac arrest) when no identifiable R wave is present. - ✔✔You enter your
client's room and find him pulseless and unresponsive. What would be the treatment of
choice for this client?
✔✔0.24 seconds
Explanation:
In adults, the normal range for the PR is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR internal of 0.24
seconds would indicate a first-degree heart block. - ✔✔Which PR interval presents a
first-degree heart block?
✔✔Sinus bradycardia is a dysrhythmia that proceeds normally through the conduction
pathway but at a slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) rate. Sinus bradycardia is a
slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) heart rate. - ✔✔A 66-year-old female client is
having cardiac diagnostic tests to determine the cause of her symptoms. In her follow-
up visit to the cardiologist, she is told that she has a dysrhythmia at a rate slower than
60 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia did the tests reveal?
✔✔The P wave depicts atrial depolarization, or spread of the electrical impulse from the
sinoatrial node through the atria. - ✔✔P Wave
✔✔The PR interval represents spread of the impulse through the interatrial and
internodal fibers, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. - ✔✔PR
Interval
✔✔The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. - ✔✔QRS Complex
✔✔The T wave depicts the relative refractory period, representing ventricular
repolarization - ✔✔T Wave
,✔✔The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-
acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The
duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours
Humalog is a rapid-acting insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. A short-acting
insulin is Humulin-R. An example of a long-acting insulin is Glargine (Lantus) -
✔✔Duration of Insulin is:
✔✔Once digested, 100% of carbohydrates are converted to glucose. However,
approximately 40% of protein foods are also converted to glucose, but this has minimal
effect on blood glucose levels - ✔✔Once digested, what percentage of carbohydrates is
converted to glucose
✔✔Immediate bystander CPR
Explanation:
The treatment of choice for v-fib is immediate bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR), defibrillation as soon as possible, and activation of emergency services -
✔✔Which of the following is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation
✔✔used to treat ventricular fibrillation and unstable ventricular tachycardia -
✔✔Amiodarone
✔✔used to treat ventricular ectopy, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation -
✔✔Lidocaine
✔✔used to treat symptomatic bradycardia - ✔✔atropine
✔✔Desmopressin
Why? - ✔✔The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should
anticipate the administration of:
✔✔Serum Potassium - ✔✔After being sick for 3 days, a client with a history of diabetes
mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should
evaluate which diagnostic test results to prevent arrhythmias?
✔✔Hypoglycemia - ✔✔Glucagon is used primarily to treat a patient with
✔✔Early morning hyperglycemia resulting from increased growth hormone circulation -
✔✔dawn phenomenon
✔✔"It shows the time needed for the SA node impulse to depolarize the atria and travel
through the AV node."
Explanation:
, The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the
QRS complex and represents the time needed for sinus node stimulation, atrial
depolarization, and conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. In
a normal heart the impulses do not travel backward. The PR interval does not include
the time it take to travel through the Purkinje fibers - ✔✔P-R interval
✔✔Ketones accumulate in the blood and urine when fat breaks down. Ketones signal a
deficiency of insulin that will cause the body to start to break down stored fat for energy.
Explanation:
Ketones (or ketone bodies) are byproducts of fat breakdown, and they accumulate in
the blood and urine. Ketones in the urine signal a deficiency of insulin and control of
type 1 diabetes is deteriorating. When almost no effective insulin is available, the body
starts to break down stored fat for energy - ✔✔A nurse is teaching a patient recovering
from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) about management of "sick days." The patient asks
the nurse why it is important to monitor the urine for ketones. Which of the following
statements is the nurse's best response?
✔✔subset of type 2 due to hormone release from placenta resist insulin
2nd & 3rd Trimester, give glucose challenge, dx if over 126 - ✔✔Gestational Diabetes
✔✔TX: insulin, meal spacing - ✔✔Type I
✔✔Treat: Sulfonurea (Increase insulin) + biguanide (incr. isnulin sensitivity), diet &
exercise - ✔✔Type 2
✔✔Disease in blood vessels, in SMALLER (eyes, diabetic retinapothy) -
✔✔Microangiopathy
✔✔Larger vessel damage - ✔✔Macroangiopathy
✔✔clots build up, accelorates athro sclerosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction -
✔✔Macrovascualr Angiopathy
✔✔blood seeps & protein leaks out, leads to blindness (diabetic retinapothy) -
✔✔Microvascualr Angiopathy
✔✔Impaired glucose tolerance 140-199
impaired fasting glucose 110-126
screen at 40 is FHx present
encourage weightloss - ✔✔pre-diabetes
✔✔Central Obesity, in a prothrombotic state (prone to clots), proinflammatory state,
dyslipidemia, elevated BP 135/85
EXAMS QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS SURE A+
✔✔A client with chronic renal failure selects a scrambled egg for his breakfast. What
action should the nurse take?
A) Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein.
B) Remind the client that protein in the diet should be avoided.
C) Suggest that the client also select orange juice, to promote absorption.
D) Encourage the client to attend classes on dietary management of CRF - ✔✔A)
Commend the client for selecting a high biologic value protein
Foods such as eggs and milk (A) are high biologic proteins which are allowed because
they are complete proteins and supply the essential amino acids that are necessary for
growth and cell repair. Although a low-protein diet is followed (B), some protein is
essential. Orange juice is rich in potassium, and should not be encouraged (C). The
client has made a good diet choice, so (D) is not necessary
✔✔A postoperative client will need to perform daily dressing changes after discharge.
Which outcome statement best demonstrates the client's readiness to manage his
wound care after discharge? The client
A) asks relevant questions regarding the dressing change.
,B) states he will be able to complete the wound care regimen.
C) demonstrates the wound care procedure correctly.
D) has all the necessary supplies for wound care. - ✔✔C) demonstrates the wound care
procedure correctly
A return demonstration of a procedure (C) provides an objective assessment of the
client's ability to perform a task, while (A and B) are subjective measures. (D) is
important, but is less of a priority prior to discharge than the nurse's assessment of the
client's ability to complete the wound care
✔✔Immediate defibrillation
Explanation:
Defibrillation is used during pulseless ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation, and
asystole (cardiac arrest) when no identifiable R wave is present. - ✔✔You enter your
client's room and find him pulseless and unresponsive. What would be the treatment of
choice for this client?
✔✔0.24 seconds
Explanation:
In adults, the normal range for the PR is 0.12 to 0.20 seconds. A PR internal of 0.24
seconds would indicate a first-degree heart block. - ✔✔Which PR interval presents a
first-degree heart block?
✔✔Sinus bradycardia is a dysrhythmia that proceeds normally through the conduction
pathway but at a slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) rate. Sinus bradycardia is a
slower than usual (≤60 beats/minute) heart rate. - ✔✔A 66-year-old female client is
having cardiac diagnostic tests to determine the cause of her symptoms. In her follow-
up visit to the cardiologist, she is told that she has a dysrhythmia at a rate slower than
60 beats/minute. What type of dysrhythmia did the tests reveal?
✔✔The P wave depicts atrial depolarization, or spread of the electrical impulse from the
sinoatrial node through the atria. - ✔✔P Wave
✔✔The PR interval represents spread of the impulse through the interatrial and
internodal fibers, atrioventricular node, bundle of His, and Purkinje fibers. - ✔✔PR
Interval
✔✔The QRS complex represents ventricular depolarization. - ✔✔QRS Complex
✔✔The T wave depicts the relative refractory period, representing ventricular
repolarization - ✔✔T Wave
,✔✔The duration of regular insulin is 4 to 6 hours; 3 to 5 hours is the duration for rapid-
acting insulin such as Novolog. The duration of NPH insulin is 12 to 16 hours. The
duration of Lantus insulin is 24 hours
Humalog is a rapid-acting insulin. NPH is an intermediate-acting insulin. A short-acting
insulin is Humulin-R. An example of a long-acting insulin is Glargine (Lantus) -
✔✔Duration of Insulin is:
✔✔Once digested, 100% of carbohydrates are converted to glucose. However,
approximately 40% of protein foods are also converted to glucose, but this has minimal
effect on blood glucose levels - ✔✔Once digested, what percentage of carbohydrates is
converted to glucose
✔✔Immediate bystander CPR
Explanation:
The treatment of choice for v-fib is immediate bystander cardiopulmonary resuscitation
(CPR), defibrillation as soon as possible, and activation of emergency services -
✔✔Which of the following is the treatment of choice for ventricular fibrillation
✔✔used to treat ventricular fibrillation and unstable ventricular tachycardia -
✔✔Amiodarone
✔✔used to treat ventricular ectopy, ventricular tachycardia, and ventricular fibrillation -
✔✔Lidocaine
✔✔used to treat symptomatic bradycardia - ✔✔atropine
✔✔Desmopressin
Why? - ✔✔The nurse is caring for a client with diabetes insipidus. The nurse should
anticipate the administration of:
✔✔Serum Potassium - ✔✔After being sick for 3 days, a client with a history of diabetes
mellitus is admitted to the hospital with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The nurse should
evaluate which diagnostic test results to prevent arrhythmias?
✔✔Hypoglycemia - ✔✔Glucagon is used primarily to treat a patient with
✔✔Early morning hyperglycemia resulting from increased growth hormone circulation -
✔✔dawn phenomenon
✔✔"It shows the time needed for the SA node impulse to depolarize the atria and travel
through the AV node."
Explanation:
, The PR interval is measured from the beginning of the P wave to the beginning of the
QRS complex and represents the time needed for sinus node stimulation, atrial
depolarization, and conduction through the AV node before ventricular depolarization. In
a normal heart the impulses do not travel backward. The PR interval does not include
the time it take to travel through the Purkinje fibers - ✔✔P-R interval
✔✔Ketones accumulate in the blood and urine when fat breaks down. Ketones signal a
deficiency of insulin that will cause the body to start to break down stored fat for energy.
Explanation:
Ketones (or ketone bodies) are byproducts of fat breakdown, and they accumulate in
the blood and urine. Ketones in the urine signal a deficiency of insulin and control of
type 1 diabetes is deteriorating. When almost no effective insulin is available, the body
starts to break down stored fat for energy - ✔✔A nurse is teaching a patient recovering
from diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) about management of "sick days." The patient asks
the nurse why it is important to monitor the urine for ketones. Which of the following
statements is the nurse's best response?
✔✔subset of type 2 due to hormone release from placenta resist insulin
2nd & 3rd Trimester, give glucose challenge, dx if over 126 - ✔✔Gestational Diabetes
✔✔TX: insulin, meal spacing - ✔✔Type I
✔✔Treat: Sulfonurea (Increase insulin) + biguanide (incr. isnulin sensitivity), diet &
exercise - ✔✔Type 2
✔✔Disease in blood vessels, in SMALLER (eyes, diabetic retinapothy) -
✔✔Microangiopathy
✔✔Larger vessel damage - ✔✔Macroangiopathy
✔✔clots build up, accelorates athro sclerosis, which can lead to myocardial infarction -
✔✔Macrovascualr Angiopathy
✔✔blood seeps & protein leaks out, leads to blindness (diabetic retinapothy) -
✔✔Microvascualr Angiopathy
✔✔Impaired glucose tolerance 140-199
impaired fasting glucose 110-126
screen at 40 is FHx present
encourage weightloss - ✔✔pre-diabetes
✔✔Central Obesity, in a prothrombotic state (prone to clots), proinflammatory state,
dyslipidemia, elevated BP 135/85
