RSNG – QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED ANSWERS | PLUS
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
• Core Domains: *
•
• - Professional Nursing Practice and Ethics *
•
• - Patient Assessment and Care Planning *
•
• - Pharmacological Therapies and Safe Administration *
•
• - Pathophysiology and Clinical Interventions *
•
• - Legal and Regulatory Compliance in Healthcare *
•
• - Quality Improvement and Patient Safety *
•
• - Leadership and Interdisciplinary Collaboration *
•
• Introduction *
•
• This comprehensive assessment is designed to evaluate core competencies and
advanced *
•
• knowledge required for professional nursing excellence. It measures essential skills
*
•
• in clinical reasoning, ethical decision-making, legal frameworks, and patient-centered
*
•
, • care. Utilizing a blend of foundational theory, regulatory guidelines, and realistic *
•
• clinical scenarios, the examination tests the candidate's ability to apply critical *
•
• thinking to complex healthcare situations. The multiple-choice and scenario-based
*
•
• structure ensures a rigorous evaluation of both theoretical understanding and
empirical *
•
• application, preparing practitioners to deliver high-quality, safe, and effective care. *
•
Question 1
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient receiving mechanical ventilation and
notes an arterial blood gas (ABG) result of pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administering sodium bicarbonate intravenously B. Decreasing the ventilator respiratory
rate C. Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or rate D. Initiating continuous positive airway
pressure (CPAP)
C. Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or rate
Explanation: The patient's ABG indicates respiratory acidosis (low pH and elevated
PaCO2). Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or respiratory rate helps eliminate excess
carbon dioxide through increased minute ventilation, thereby correcting the acidosis.
Question 2
Under the principle of informed consent, which of the following actions is the primary
responsibility of the staff nurse when preparing a patient for an elective surgical procedure?
A. Explaining the risks, benefits, and alternative treatment options to the patient B.
Witnessing the patient's signature on the consent form and verifying their understanding C.
Determining the patient's cognitive capacity to consent to the procedure D. Securing the
signature of a legal surrogate if the patient expresses mild anxiety
B. Witnessing the patient's signature on the consent form and verifying their
understanding
, Explanation: The provider performing the procedure is legally responsible for explaining
the risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse's role is to witness the signature, confirm the
patient is signing voluntarily, and ensure the patient appears competent and understands
what they are signing.
Question 3
A patient with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the emergency department with
severe orthopnea, pink frothy sputum, and bilateral crackles throughout the lung fields.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer immediately?
A. Metoprolol B. Furosemide C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
Explanation: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of acute pulmonary edema secondary
to heart failure. Intravenous loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are indicated immediately to
reduce fluid volume overload, decrease preload, and relieve respiratory distress.
Question 4
A nurse enters a patient's room and discovers a fire ignited in the wastebasket. Applying the
RACE acronym, which action should the nurse take first?
A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire B. Confine the fire by closing the door to
the room C. Activate the facility fire alarm system D. Remove the patient from the
immediate danger zone
D. Remove the patient from the immediate danger zone
Explanation: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Alarm, Confine, and
Extinguish/Evacuate. The priority action is always to rescue or remove any individuals in
immediate danger from the fire source.
Question 5
A nurse is assigned to care for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should
the nurse assess first?
A. A patient with deep vein thrombosis who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath
and chest pain B. A patient with diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose reading is
210 mg/dL C. A patient two days postoperative from an appendectomy requesting PRN oral
analgesic medication D. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with
an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air
A. A patient with deep vein thrombosis who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath
and chest pain
, Explanation: Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a patient with a known deep
vein thrombosis are highly suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening
medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 6
While evaluating an ethical dilemma on an oncology unit, the interdisciplinary team
discusses the patient's right to refuse further chemotherapeutic treatments despite the
family's wishes. Which ethical principle is being upheld by respecting the patient's decision?
A. Beneficence B. Nonmaleficence C. Autonomy D. Justice
C. Autonomy
Explanation: Autonomy refers to an individual's right to self-determination and making
independent choices regarding their own medical care, including the right to refuse
treatments.
Question 7
A patient with an acute myocardial infarction is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion
of heparin. Which laboratory parameter must the nurse monitor closely to evaluate the
therapeutic effectiveness and safety of this medication?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) C. International
Normalized Ratio (INR) D. Platelet count only
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Explanation: The aPTT is utilized to monitor the therapeutic efficacy and safety of
unfractionated heparin infusions. PT and INR are typically used to monitor oral warfarin
therapy.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which
infection control precautions must the nurse implement?
A. Protective environment precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Contact precautions D.
Airborne precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via small-particle aerosols that
remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions, including the use of an N95 respirator
and a negative-pressure airflow isolation room, are mandatory.
Question 9
RATIONALES | GUARANTEED PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE
• Core Domains: *
•
• - Professional Nursing Practice and Ethics *
•
• - Patient Assessment and Care Planning *
•
• - Pharmacological Therapies and Safe Administration *
•
• - Pathophysiology and Clinical Interventions *
•
• - Legal and Regulatory Compliance in Healthcare *
•
• - Quality Improvement and Patient Safety *
•
• - Leadership and Interdisciplinary Collaboration *
•
• Introduction *
•
• This comprehensive assessment is designed to evaluate core competencies and
advanced *
•
• knowledge required for professional nursing excellence. It measures essential skills
*
•
• in clinical reasoning, ethical decision-making, legal frameworks, and patient-centered
*
•
, • care. Utilizing a blend of foundational theory, regulatory guidelines, and realistic *
•
• clinical scenarios, the examination tests the candidate's ability to apply critical *
•
• thinking to complex healthcare situations. The multiple-choice and scenario-based
*
•
• structure ensures a rigorous evaluation of both theoretical understanding and
empirical *
•
• application, preparing practitioners to deliver high-quality, safe, and effective care. *
•
Question 1
A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a patient receiving mechanical ventilation and
notes an arterial blood gas (ABG) result of pH 7.28, PaCO2 55 mmHg, and HCO3 26 mEq/L.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse anticipate?
A. Administering sodium bicarbonate intravenously B. Decreasing the ventilator respiratory
rate C. Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or rate D. Initiating continuous positive airway
pressure (CPAP)
C. Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or rate
Explanation: The patient's ABG indicates respiratory acidosis (low pH and elevated
PaCO2). Increasing the ventilator tidal volume or respiratory rate helps eliminate excess
carbon dioxide through increased minute ventilation, thereby correcting the acidosis.
Question 2
Under the principle of informed consent, which of the following actions is the primary
responsibility of the staff nurse when preparing a patient for an elective surgical procedure?
A. Explaining the risks, benefits, and alternative treatment options to the patient B.
Witnessing the patient's signature on the consent form and verifying their understanding C.
Determining the patient's cognitive capacity to consent to the procedure D. Securing the
signature of a legal surrogate if the patient expresses mild anxiety
B. Witnessing the patient's signature on the consent form and verifying their
understanding
, Explanation: The provider performing the procedure is legally responsible for explaining
the risks, benefits, and alternatives. The nurse's role is to witness the signature, confirm the
patient is signing voluntarily, and ensure the patient appears competent and understands
what they are signing.
Question 3
A patient with a history of chronic heart failure presents to the emergency department with
severe orthopnea, pink frothy sputum, and bilateral crackles throughout the lung fields.
Which medication should the nurse expect to administer immediately?
A. Metoprolol B. Furosemide C. Digoxin D. Spironolactone
B. Furosemide
Explanation: The patient is exhibiting classic signs of acute pulmonary edema secondary
to heart failure. Intravenous loop diuretics, such as furosemide, are indicated immediately to
reduce fluid volume overload, decrease preload, and relieve respiratory distress.
Question 4
A nurse enters a patient's room and discovers a fire ignited in the wastebasket. Applying the
RACE acronym, which action should the nurse take first?
A. Aim the fire extinguisher at the base of the fire B. Confine the fire by closing the door to
the room C. Activate the facility fire alarm system D. Remove the patient from the
immediate danger zone
D. Remove the patient from the immediate danger zone
Explanation: The RACE acronym stands for Rescue, Alarm, Confine, and
Extinguish/Evacuate. The priority action is always to rescue or remove any individuals in
immediate danger from the fire source.
Question 5
A nurse is assigned to care for four patients on a medical-surgical unit. Which patient should
the nurse assess first?
A. A patient with deep vein thrombosis who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath
and chest pain B. A patient with diabetes mellitus whose morning blood glucose reading is
210 mg/dL C. A patient two days postoperative from an appendectomy requesting PRN oral
analgesic medication D. A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) with
an oxygen saturation of 90% on room air
A. A patient with deep vein thrombosis who reports sudden onset of shortness of breath
and chest pain
, Explanation: Sudden shortness of breath and chest pain in a patient with a known deep
vein thrombosis are highly suggestive of a pulmonary embolism, which is a life-threatening
medical emergency requiring immediate assessment and intervention.
Question 6
While evaluating an ethical dilemma on an oncology unit, the interdisciplinary team
discusses the patient's right to refuse further chemotherapeutic treatments despite the
family's wishes. Which ethical principle is being upheld by respecting the patient's decision?
A. Beneficence B. Nonmaleficence C. Autonomy D. Justice
C. Autonomy
Explanation: Autonomy refers to an individual's right to self-determination and making
independent choices regarding their own medical care, including the right to refuse
treatments.
Question 7
A patient with an acute myocardial infarction is prescribed a continuous intravenous infusion
of heparin. Which laboratory parameter must the nurse monitor closely to evaluate the
therapeutic effectiveness and safety of this medication?
A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) C. International
Normalized Ratio (INR) D. Platelet count only
B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
Explanation: The aPTT is utilized to monitor the therapeutic efficacy and safety of
unfractionated heparin infusions. PT and INR are typically used to monitor oral warfarin
therapy.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a patient diagnosed with active pulmonary tuberculosis (TB). Which
infection control precautions must the nurse implement?
A. Protective environment precautions B. Droplet precautions C. Contact precautions D.
Airborne precautions
D. Airborne precautions
Explanation: Mycobacterium tuberculosis is transmitted via small-particle aerosols that
remain suspended in the air. Airborne precautions, including the use of an N95 respirator
and a negative-pressure airflow isolation room, are mandatory.
Question 9
