NR606 Week 10 Exam V1 | NR606
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-
Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with
Rationale (NR606 Week 10 Exam) |
Chamberlain University
1. A 10-year-old male is brought to the clinic for an evaluation due to persistent patterns of
inattention and hyperactivity that interfere with his school performance. Which assessment
tool is most appropriate for the PMHNP to utilize in this diagnosis?
A. PHQ-9
B. Vanderbilt Assessment Scale
C. GAD-7
D. MoCA
Answer: B
Rationale: The Vanderbilt Assessment Scale is a standardized tool used to evaluate ADHD
symptoms in children aged 6 to 12. It incorporates feedback from both parents and
teachers to provide a comprehensive view of the child’s behavior across different settings.
Utilizing this tool helps the PMHNP meet DSM-5 diagnostic criteria by documenting
impairment in multiple environments.
,2. A 75-year-old female presents with sudden onset confusion, fluctuating levels of
consciousness, and visual hallucinations following a urinary tract infection. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Delirium
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Schizophrenia
Answer: B
Rationale: Delirium is characterized by an acute change in mental status, fluctuating
course, and inattention, often triggered by an underlying medical condition like an
infection. Unlike dementia, which is progressive and chronic, delirium represents a medical
emergency that requires immediate identification of the causative agent. The PMHNP must
focus on treating the UTI to resolve the psychiatric symptoms.
3. When initiating a stimulant medication for an adolescent with ADHD, which physical
parameter is most critical for the PMHNP to monitor during follow-up visits?
A. Vision acuity
B. Height and weight
C. Hearing sensitivity
D. Grip strength
,Answer: B
Rationale: Stimulant medications can cause appetite suppression, which may lead to
growth delays in children and adolescents. Regular monitoring of height and weight is
essential to track the patient’s growth trajectory along standardized curves. If significant
deviations occur, the PMHNP may consider a ‘medication holiday’ or a change in
pharmacotherapy.
4. A 16-year-old female presents with a BMI of 16.5, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a
distorted body image. She admits to restricting her caloric intake significantly. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Anorexia Nervosa
B. Binge Eating Disorder
C. Bulimia Nervosa
D. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Anorexia Nervosa is defined by significantly low body weight, intense fear of
weight gain, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight is experienced. The BMI of 16.5
indicates a severe underweight status consistent with this diagnosis. Clinical management
focuses on nutritional rehabilitation and addressing the psychological distortions
regarding body size.
, 5. A 68-year-old patient being treated for bipolar disorder presents with coarse hand tremors,
ataxia, and persistent nausea. The PMHNP suspects Lithium toxicity. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Obtain a serum Lithium level immediately
B. Increase the Lithium dose
C. Switch to Valproic acid
D. Advise the patient to drink more caffeine
Answer: A
Rationale: Coarse tremors and ataxia are signs of moderate to severe Lithium toxicity,
which can be life-threatening. The PMHNP must immediately verify the serum
concentration to guide further medical intervention, such as hydration or hemodialysis.
Education on maintaining consistent salt and fluid intake is also crucial for long-term
management.
6. Which FDA-approved medication for Alzheimer’s disease acts as an NMDA receptor
antagonist?
A. Donepezil
B. Galantamine
C. Memantine
D. Rivastigmine
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-
Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with
Rationale (NR606 Week 10 Exam) |
Chamberlain University
1. A 10-year-old male is brought to the clinic for an evaluation due to persistent patterns of
inattention and hyperactivity that interfere with his school performance. Which assessment
tool is most appropriate for the PMHNP to utilize in this diagnosis?
A. PHQ-9
B. Vanderbilt Assessment Scale
C. GAD-7
D. MoCA
Answer: B
Rationale: The Vanderbilt Assessment Scale is a standardized tool used to evaluate ADHD
symptoms in children aged 6 to 12. It incorporates feedback from both parents and
teachers to provide a comprehensive view of the child’s behavior across different settings.
Utilizing this tool helps the PMHNP meet DSM-5 diagnostic criteria by documenting
impairment in multiple environments.
,2. A 75-year-old female presents with sudden onset confusion, fluctuating levels of
consciousness, and visual hallucinations following a urinary tract infection. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Major Depressive Disorder
B. Delirium
C. Alzheimer’s Disease
D. Schizophrenia
Answer: B
Rationale: Delirium is characterized by an acute change in mental status, fluctuating
course, and inattention, often triggered by an underlying medical condition like an
infection. Unlike dementia, which is progressive and chronic, delirium represents a medical
emergency that requires immediate identification of the causative agent. The PMHNP must
focus on treating the UTI to resolve the psychiatric symptoms.
3. When initiating a stimulant medication for an adolescent with ADHD, which physical
parameter is most critical for the PMHNP to monitor during follow-up visits?
A. Vision acuity
B. Height and weight
C. Hearing sensitivity
D. Grip strength
,Answer: B
Rationale: Stimulant medications can cause appetite suppression, which may lead to
growth delays in children and adolescents. Regular monitoring of height and weight is
essential to track the patient’s growth trajectory along standardized curves. If significant
deviations occur, the PMHNP may consider a ‘medication holiday’ or a change in
pharmacotherapy.
4. A 16-year-old female presents with a BMI of 16.5, an intense fear of gaining weight, and a
distorted body image. She admits to restricting her caloric intake significantly. Which
diagnosis is most appropriate?
A. Anorexia Nervosa
B. Binge Eating Disorder
C. Bulimia Nervosa
D. Body Dysmorphic Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: Anorexia Nervosa is defined by significantly low body weight, intense fear of
weight gain, and disturbance in the way one’s body weight is experienced. The BMI of 16.5
indicates a severe underweight status consistent with this diagnosis. Clinical management
focuses on nutritional rehabilitation and addressing the psychological distortions
regarding body size.
, 5. A 68-year-old patient being treated for bipolar disorder presents with coarse hand tremors,
ataxia, and persistent nausea. The PMHNP suspects Lithium toxicity. What is the priority
intervention?
A. Obtain a serum Lithium level immediately
B. Increase the Lithium dose
C. Switch to Valproic acid
D. Advise the patient to drink more caffeine
Answer: A
Rationale: Coarse tremors and ataxia are signs of moderate to severe Lithium toxicity,
which can be life-threatening. The PMHNP must immediately verify the serum
concentration to guide further medical intervention, such as hydration or hemodialysis.
Education on maintaining consistent salt and fluid intake is also crucial for long-term
management.
6. Which FDA-approved medication for Alzheimer’s disease acts as an NMDA receptor
antagonist?
A. Donepezil
B. Galantamine
C. Memantine
D. Rivastigmine
