NR606 Week 10 Exam V3 | NR606
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-
Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with
Rationale (NR606 Week 10 Exam) |
Chamberlain University
1. When assessing an adolescent for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), which symptom is
more likely to be reported in this age group than in adults?
A. Excessive guilt
B. Irritability
C. Psychomotor retardation
D. Early morning awakening
Answer: B
Rationale: In children and adolescents, the DSM-5 notes that irritable mood may be
substituted for depressed mood as a primary symptom of MDD. This irritability often
manifests as temper outbursts or a generally hostile demeanor toward peers and family
members. Understanding these developmental variations is crucial for an accurate
diagnosis in pediatric populations.
2. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children and adolescents?
A. Methylphenidate
,B. Fluoxetine
C. Risperidone
D. Atomoxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Risperidone and Aripiprazole are the only two medications currently FDA-
approved for treating irritability associated with ASD in children and adolescents. These
atypical antipsychotics help manage symptoms such as aggression, self-injury, and severe
temper tantrums. Practitioners must closely monitor patients for metabolic side effects,
including weight gain and hyperprolactinemia.
3. A 10-year-old child presents with persistent outbursts of temper that are out of proportion
to the situation, occurring at least three times a week. The most appropriate diagnosis based
on the DSM-5 is:
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: DMDD was introduced in the DSM-5 to address concerns about the
overdiagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children who present with chronic, severe irritability
,rather than episodic mania. Diagnosis requires symptoms to be present for at least 12
months and manifest in at least two settings. This diagnosis cannot be made before age 6 or
after age 18.
4. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for an adolescent diagnosed with
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with no history of substance abuse?
A. Atomoxetine
B. Guanfacine
C. Methylphenidate stimulants
D. Bupropion
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulant medications, including methylphenidate and amphetamine
derivatives, remain the gold standard and first-line treatment for ADHD due to their high
efficacy. They work primarily by increasing the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in
the prefrontal cortex. Clinicians must perform a thorough cardiac screening and monitor
growth parameters throughout treatment.
5. In Bowenian Family Systems Theory, the process by which a two-person emotional system
under stress recruits a third person to stabilize the relationship is called:
A. Triangulation
B. Differentiation of self
C. Emotional cutoff
, D. Enmeshment
Answer: A
Rationale: Triangulation occurs when a dyad experiencing tension involves a third party
to decrease anxiety and bypass direct conflict. While this provides temporary stability, it
prevents the original two people from resolving their issues. Bowen emphasized that
increasing the differentiation of family members is the key to reducing unhealthy
triangulation.
6. Which of the following is a primary clinical feature of Conduct Disorder in adolescents?
A. Argumentative behavior with authority figures
B. Losing one’s temper easily
C. Violation of the basic rights of others or major societal norms
D. Difficulties with focused attention and hyperactivity
Answer: C
Rationale: Conduct Disorder is characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of
behavior where the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal rules are
violated. This includes behaviors like aggression toward people or animals, destruction of
property, and theft. It is distinguished from ODD by the severity of the rule-breaking and
the presence of physical aggression.
Diagnosis & Management in Psychiatric-
Mental Health II Practicum | Q&A with
Rationale (NR606 Week 10 Exam) |
Chamberlain University
1. When assessing an adolescent for Major Depressive Disorder (MDD), which symptom is
more likely to be reported in this age group than in adults?
A. Excessive guilt
B. Irritability
C. Psychomotor retardation
D. Early morning awakening
Answer: B
Rationale: In children and adolescents, the DSM-5 notes that irritable mood may be
substituted for depressed mood as a primary symptom of MDD. This irritability often
manifests as temper outbursts or a generally hostile demeanor toward peers and family
members. Understanding these developmental variations is crucial for an accurate
diagnosis in pediatric populations.
2. Which medication is FDA-approved for the treatment of irritability associated with Autism
Spectrum Disorder (ASD) in children and adolescents?
A. Methylphenidate
,B. Fluoxetine
C. Risperidone
D. Atomoxetine
Answer: C
Rationale: Risperidone and Aripiprazole are the only two medications currently FDA-
approved for treating irritability associated with ASD in children and adolescents. These
atypical antipsychotics help manage symptoms such as aggression, self-injury, and severe
temper tantrums. Practitioners must closely monitor patients for metabolic side effects,
including weight gain and hyperprolactinemia.
3. A 10-year-old child presents with persistent outbursts of temper that are out of proportion
to the situation, occurring at least three times a week. The most appropriate diagnosis based
on the DSM-5 is:
A. Disruptive Mood Dysregulation Disorder (DMDD)
B. Bipolar I Disorder
C. Oppositional Defiant Disorder (ODD)
D. Conduct Disorder
Answer: A
Rationale: DMDD was introduced in the DSM-5 to address concerns about the
overdiagnosis of Bipolar Disorder in children who present with chronic, severe irritability
,rather than episodic mania. Diagnosis requires symptoms to be present for at least 12
months and manifest in at least two settings. This diagnosis cannot be made before age 6 or
after age 18.
4. What is the first-line pharmacological treatment for an adolescent diagnosed with
Attention-Deficit/Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD) with no history of substance abuse?
A. Atomoxetine
B. Guanfacine
C. Methylphenidate stimulants
D. Bupropion
Answer: C
Rationale: Stimulant medications, including methylphenidate and amphetamine
derivatives, remain the gold standard and first-line treatment for ADHD due to their high
efficacy. They work primarily by increasing the levels of dopamine and norepinephrine in
the prefrontal cortex. Clinicians must perform a thorough cardiac screening and monitor
growth parameters throughout treatment.
5. In Bowenian Family Systems Theory, the process by which a two-person emotional system
under stress recruits a third person to stabilize the relationship is called:
A. Triangulation
B. Differentiation of self
C. Emotional cutoff
, D. Enmeshment
Answer: A
Rationale: Triangulation occurs when a dyad experiencing tension involves a third party
to decrease anxiety and bypass direct conflict. While this provides temporary stability, it
prevents the original two people from resolving their issues. Bowen emphasized that
increasing the differentiation of family members is the key to reducing unhealthy
triangulation.
6. Which of the following is a primary clinical feature of Conduct Disorder in adolescents?
A. Argumentative behavior with authority figures
B. Losing one’s temper easily
C. Violation of the basic rights of others or major societal norms
D. Difficulties with focused attention and hyperactivity
Answer: C
Rationale: Conduct Disorder is characterized by a repetitive and persistent pattern of
behavior where the basic rights of others or major age-appropriate societal rules are
violated. This includes behaviors like aggression toward people or animals, destruction of
property, and theft. It is distinguished from ODD by the severity of the rule-breaking and
the presence of physical aggression.
