NR606 Week 8 Exam V3 | NR606 Diagnosis
& Management in Psychiatric-Mental
Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale
(NR606 Week 8 Exam) | Chamberlain
University
1. A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD). Which of the
following antidepressants is FDA-approved for the treatment of MDD in this age group?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Venlafaxine
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluoxetine is currently the only SSRI FDA-approved for the treatment of MDD in
children aged 8 and older. While other SSRIs like sertraline are used off-label, they lack the
specific pediatric MDD indication for this age group. The provider must remain vigilant
regarding the black box warning for increased suicidal ideation in pediatric patients.
2. Which lab value is most critical to monitor for a patient receiving Clozapine for treatment-
resistant schizophrenia?
A. Serum Potassium
,B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
D. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine carries a high risk of agranulocytosis, necessitating strict monitoring
of the Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC). Treatment must be interrupted if the ANC falls
below 1000/µL in the general population. This monitoring is mandated by the Risk
Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program to ensure patient safety.
3. A 15-year-old female presents with irritability, decreased need for sleep, and flight of
ideas. She is diagnosed with Bipolar I Disorder. Which medication is FDA-approved for the
treatment of mania in adolescents?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Gabapentin
C. Bupropion
D. Lithium
Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium is FDA-approved for the treatment of manic and mixed episodes in
pediatric patients aged 7 to 17. Close monitoring of serum levels is required due to the
, narrow therapeutic index of the medication. It remains a gold standard for mood
stabilization in this population when managed appropriately.
4. When assessing a child for ADHD, which of the following is a core requirement according to
the DSM-5-TR?
A. Symptoms must be present in at least two different settings.
B. Symptoms must be present before the age of 7.
C. The child must exhibit symptoms for at least 12 months.
D. Hyperactivity must be present for a diagnosis.
Answer: A
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR requires that ADHD symptoms be present in two or more
settings, such as home and school, to ensure the behavior is not context-specific.
Additionally, several symptoms must have been present prior to age 12. This criterion
helps differentiate ADHD from situational behavioral issues or adjustment disorders.
5. A 72-year-old patient with depression reports memory loss and difficulty concentrating.
The PMHNP suspects pseudodementia rather than Alzheimer’s. Which finding supports
pseudodementia?
A. Symptoms have a slow, insidious onset.
B. The patient attempts to hide cognitive deficits.
C. The patient makes little effort to answer questions during the exam.
& Management in Psychiatric-Mental
Health II Practicum | Q&A with Rationale
(NR606 Week 8 Exam) | Chamberlain
University
1. A 10-year-old male is diagnosed with Major Depressive Disorder (MDD). Which of the
following antidepressants is FDA-approved for the treatment of MDD in this age group?
A. Sertraline
B. Fluoxetine
C. Paroxetine
D. Venlafaxine
Answer: B
Rationale: Fluoxetine is currently the only SSRI FDA-approved for the treatment of MDD in
children aged 8 and older. While other SSRIs like sertraline are used off-label, they lack the
specific pediatric MDD indication for this age group. The provider must remain vigilant
regarding the black box warning for increased suicidal ideation in pediatric patients.
2. Which lab value is most critical to monitor for a patient receiving Clozapine for treatment-
resistant schizophrenia?
A. Serum Potassium
,B. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH)
C. Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC)
D. Liver Function Tests (LFTs)
Answer: C
Rationale: Clozapine carries a high risk of agranulocytosis, necessitating strict monitoring
of the Absolute Neutrophil Count (ANC). Treatment must be interrupted if the ANC falls
below 1000/µL in the general population. This monitoring is mandated by the Risk
Evaluation and Mitigation Strategy (REMS) program to ensure patient safety.
3. A 15-year-old female presents with irritability, decreased need for sleep, and flight of
ideas. She is diagnosed with Bipolar I Disorder. Which medication is FDA-approved for the
treatment of mania in adolescents?
A. Lamotrigine
B. Gabapentin
C. Bupropion
D. Lithium
Answer: D
Rationale: Lithium is FDA-approved for the treatment of manic and mixed episodes in
pediatric patients aged 7 to 17. Close monitoring of serum levels is required due to the
, narrow therapeutic index of the medication. It remains a gold standard for mood
stabilization in this population when managed appropriately.
4. When assessing a child for ADHD, which of the following is a core requirement according to
the DSM-5-TR?
A. Symptoms must be present in at least two different settings.
B. Symptoms must be present before the age of 7.
C. The child must exhibit symptoms for at least 12 months.
D. Hyperactivity must be present for a diagnosis.
Answer: A
Rationale: The DSM-5-TR requires that ADHD symptoms be present in two or more
settings, such as home and school, to ensure the behavior is not context-specific.
Additionally, several symptoms must have been present prior to age 12. This criterion
helps differentiate ADHD from situational behavioral issues or adjustment disorders.
5. A 72-year-old patient with depression reports memory loss and difficulty concentrating.
The PMHNP suspects pseudodementia rather than Alzheimer’s. Which finding supports
pseudodementia?
A. Symptoms have a slow, insidious onset.
B. The patient attempts to hide cognitive deficits.
C. The patient makes little effort to answer questions during the exam.
