TEST BANK FOR MENOPAUSE
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 100%
CORRECT!!!
A patient nearing menopause is exploring oral hormone replacement therapy
(HRT) to help control her symptoms. Which of the following educational
points is most accurate for the nurse to incorporate into the patient's care
plan?
A. HRT can provide a therapeutic benefit by helping prevent bone loss in
individuals with a high risk of osteoporosis.
B. HRT offers protective benefits that lower the risk of stroke and
congestive heart failure.
C. HRT reduces the likelihood of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. HRT is linked to a lower rate of pulmonary embolism and breast cancer.
✔✔ Answer: A. HRT can provide a therapeutic benefit by helping prevent bone
loss in individuals with a high risk of osteoporosis.
Rationale: Estrogen plays a critical role in maintaining bone density. While HRT
is primarily prescribed for moderate-to-severe vasomotor symptoms, it is also
FDA-approved to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal individuals who are at
high risk for fractures.
Why other options are incorrect: Systemic oral HRT actually increases
(rather than decreases) the risk of cardiovascular events (like stroke and
heart failure), deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE),
and—when using combined estrogen-progestogen therapy—breast cancer.
A postmenopausal patient shares with the nurse that sexual intercourse has
become painful. Which recommendation should the nurse offer?
A. Advise the patient to abstain from sexual intercourse entirely.
B. Reassure the patient that pain is a natural part of aging that should simply
be accepted.
, C. Recommend using over-the-counter vaginal lubricants during intimacy.
D. Suggest lowering the frequency of sexual activity to minimize the pain.
✔✔ Answer: C. Recommend using over-the-counter vaginal lubricants during
intimacy.
Rationale: The drop in estrogen levels during menopause frequently causes
vulvovaginal atrophy (VVA), leading to dry, thin, and easily irritated vaginal
tissues that make intercourse painful (dyspareunia). Incorporating water-soluble
lubricants during intercourse (and regular vaginal moisturizers) is a safe, highly
effective, and non-invasive first-line solution. Telling a patient to tolerate pain,
avoid intimacy, or simply reduce how often they are active does not address the
underlying physical issue.
.
Which of the following clients would be described as experiencing premature
ovarian failure?
A.
A 29-year-old woman who is receiving chemotherapy that damages her ovaries
B.
A 35-year-old woman who recently underwent an oophorectomy
C.
A 32-year-old woman who does not ovulate because of an abnormally low number
of ovarian follicles
D.
QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS 100%
CORRECT!!!
A patient nearing menopause is exploring oral hormone replacement therapy
(HRT) to help control her symptoms. Which of the following educational
points is most accurate for the nurse to incorporate into the patient's care
plan?
A. HRT can provide a therapeutic benefit by helping prevent bone loss in
individuals with a high risk of osteoporosis.
B. HRT offers protective benefits that lower the risk of stroke and
congestive heart failure.
C. HRT reduces the likelihood of developing deep vein thrombosis (DVT).
D. HRT is linked to a lower rate of pulmonary embolism and breast cancer.
✔✔ Answer: A. HRT can provide a therapeutic benefit by helping prevent bone
loss in individuals with a high risk of osteoporosis.
Rationale: Estrogen plays a critical role in maintaining bone density. While HRT
is primarily prescribed for moderate-to-severe vasomotor symptoms, it is also
FDA-approved to prevent osteoporosis in postmenopausal individuals who are at
high risk for fractures.
Why other options are incorrect: Systemic oral HRT actually increases
(rather than decreases) the risk of cardiovascular events (like stroke and
heart failure), deep vein thrombosis (DVT), pulmonary embolism (PE),
and—when using combined estrogen-progestogen therapy—breast cancer.
A postmenopausal patient shares with the nurse that sexual intercourse has
become painful. Which recommendation should the nurse offer?
A. Advise the patient to abstain from sexual intercourse entirely.
B. Reassure the patient that pain is a natural part of aging that should simply
be accepted.
, C. Recommend using over-the-counter vaginal lubricants during intimacy.
D. Suggest lowering the frequency of sexual activity to minimize the pain.
✔✔ Answer: C. Recommend using over-the-counter vaginal lubricants during
intimacy.
Rationale: The drop in estrogen levels during menopause frequently causes
vulvovaginal atrophy (VVA), leading to dry, thin, and easily irritated vaginal
tissues that make intercourse painful (dyspareunia). Incorporating water-soluble
lubricants during intercourse (and regular vaginal moisturizers) is a safe, highly
effective, and non-invasive first-line solution. Telling a patient to tolerate pain,
avoid intimacy, or simply reduce how often they are active does not address the
underlying physical issue.
.
Which of the following clients would be described as experiencing premature
ovarian failure?
A.
A 29-year-old woman who is receiving chemotherapy that damages her ovaries
B.
A 35-year-old woman who recently underwent an oophorectomy
C.
A 32-year-old woman who does not ovulate because of an abnormally low number
of ovarian follicles
D.
