NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
,NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
NRSG 2350 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
Question 1
The nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) who has a chronic productive cough and peripheral edema. Which
pathophysiological process best explains the peripheral edema?
A) Left-sided heart failure due to systemic hypertension
B) Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) due to pulmonary hypertension
C) Renal failure due to decreased renal perfusion
D) Hepatic failure due to hypoxia
Correct Answer: B) Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) due to
pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: COPD causes chronic hypoxemia, leading to pulmonary
vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension. This increases right ventricular
afterload, leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and failure (cor
pulmonale). Cor pulmonale manifests with peripheral edema, jugular venous
distention, and hepatomegaly. This is characteristic of the "blue bloater"
phenotype (chronic bronchitis) .
Question 2
A patient with asthma is prescribed a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)
and an inhaled corticosteroid. Which statement by the patient indicates a
need for further teaching?
,NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
A) "I will use my LABA inhaler daily to prevent asthma attacks."
B) "I will use my rescue inhaler if I experience sudden shortness of breath."
C) "I will rinse my mouth after using my corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "I will use my LABA inhaler for acute symptom relief."
Correct Answer: D) "I will use my LABA inhaler for acute symptom
relief."
Rationale: Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABA) such as salmeterol are used
for maintenance and prevention of asthma symptoms, not for acute relief.
Short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol) are used for acute symptom relief.
Patients should be taught to use their rescue inhaler for sudden symptoms
and their LABA/corticosteroid combination daily for prevention. Rinsing the
mouth after corticosteroid use prevents oral thrush .
Question 3
A patient with a pulmonary embolism is receiving anticoagulation therapy.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the
effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A) aPTT
B) PT/INR
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B) PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored by PT/INR. The target INR for
pulmonary embolism is 2.0-3.0. aPTT is monitored for heparin therapy.
Platelet count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
Hemoglobin is monitored for bleeding .
, NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
Question 4
A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 55% and is diagnosed
with diastolic heart failure. Which pathophysiological change is most
characteristic of this condition?
A) Impaired myocardial contractility
B) Impaired ventricular relaxation and filling
C) Reduced stroke volume
D) Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: B) Impaired ventricular relaxation and filling
Rationale: Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) is characterized by impaired
ventricular relaxation and filling, leading to increased filling pressures despite
a preserved ejection fraction (>50%). This is often caused by hypertension,
myocardial ischemia, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Systolic heart failure
(HFrEF) is characterized by impaired contractility and reduced ejection
fraction .
Question 5
A patient with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker (metoprolol).
Which assessment finding is most important to monitor before
administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Apical pulse
C) Respiratory rate
D) Serum potassium
Correct Answer: B) Apical pulse
Rationale: Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and can cause bradycardia. The
apical pulse should be monitored before administration, and the medication
,NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
NRSG 2350 EXAM 3 STUDY GUIDE 2026 COMPLETE
QUESTIONS WITH CORRECT ANSWERS
Question 1
The nurse is assessing a patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease
(COPD) who has a chronic productive cough and peripheral edema. Which
pathophysiological process best explains the peripheral edema?
A) Left-sided heart failure due to systemic hypertension
B) Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) due to pulmonary hypertension
C) Renal failure due to decreased renal perfusion
D) Hepatic failure due to hypoxia
Correct Answer: B) Right-sided heart failure (cor pulmonale) due to
pulmonary hypertension
Rationale: COPD causes chronic hypoxemia, leading to pulmonary
vasoconstriction and pulmonary hypertension. This increases right ventricular
afterload, leading to right ventricular hypertrophy and failure (cor
pulmonale). Cor pulmonale manifests with peripheral edema, jugular venous
distention, and hepatomegaly. This is characteristic of the "blue bloater"
phenotype (chronic bronchitis) .
Question 2
A patient with asthma is prescribed a long-acting beta-2 agonist (LABA)
and an inhaled corticosteroid. Which statement by the patient indicates a
need for further teaching?
,NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
A) "I will use my LABA inhaler daily to prevent asthma attacks."
B) "I will use my rescue inhaler if I experience sudden shortness of breath."
C) "I will rinse my mouth after using my corticosteroid inhaler."
D) "I will use my LABA inhaler for acute symptom relief."
Correct Answer: D) "I will use my LABA inhaler for acute symptom
relief."
Rationale: Long-acting beta-2 agonists (LABA) such as salmeterol are used
for maintenance and prevention of asthma symptoms, not for acute relief.
Short-acting beta-2 agonists (albuterol) are used for acute symptom relief.
Patients should be taught to use their rescue inhaler for sudden symptoms
and their LABA/corticosteroid combination daily for prevention. Rinsing the
mouth after corticosteroid use prevents oral thrush .
Question 3
A patient with a pulmonary embolism is receiving anticoagulation therapy.
Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor to assess the
effectiveness of warfarin therapy?
A) aPTT
B) PT/INR
C) Platelet count
D) Hemoglobin
Correct Answer: B) PT/INR
Rationale: Warfarin therapy is monitored by PT/INR. The target INR for
pulmonary embolism is 2.0-3.0. aPTT is monitored for heparin therapy.
Platelet count is monitored for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia.
Hemoglobin is monitored for bleeding .
, NRSG 2350 EXAM 3
Question 4
A patient with heart failure has an ejection fraction of 55% and is diagnosed
with diastolic heart failure. Which pathophysiological change is most
characteristic of this condition?
A) Impaired myocardial contractility
B) Impaired ventricular relaxation and filling
C) Reduced stroke volume
D) Decreased cardiac output
Correct Answer: B) Impaired ventricular relaxation and filling
Rationale: Diastolic heart failure (HFpEF) is characterized by impaired
ventricular relaxation and filling, leading to increased filling pressures despite
a preserved ejection fraction (>50%). This is often caused by hypertension,
myocardial ischemia, or hypertrophic cardiomyopathy. Systolic heart failure
(HFrEF) is characterized by impaired contractility and reduced ejection
fraction .
Question 5
A patient with hypertension is prescribed a beta-blocker (metoprolol).
Which assessment finding is most important to monitor before
administration?
A) Blood pressure
B) Apical pulse
C) Respiratory rate
D) Serum potassium
Correct Answer: B) Apical pulse
Rationale: Beta-blockers decrease heart rate and can cause bradycardia. The
apical pulse should be monitored before administration, and the medication
