RNSG 1517 Maternity Exam | Concept Study Guide & Clinical
Practice Questions (Latest 2026-2027)
Pass your RNSG 1517 Maternity Assessment on your very first attempt with this
comprehensive, high-yield nursing study package. This clinical resource delivers a deep
dive into maternal-newborn concepts, including stages of labor, fetal monitoring
patterns, postpartum complications, and neonatal assessment parameters. Eliminate
testing anxiety and master high-stakes NCLEX-style priority items using realistic
obstetrical vignettes modeled directly after the official nursing curriculum blueprint.
1. Naegele's rule is used to calculate the estimated date of delivery. Which of the
following is the correct formula?
• A) Add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual
period
• B) Add 9 months to the date of conception
• C) Subtract 7 days and add 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual
period
• D) Add 14 days to the first day of the last menstrual period
Correct Answer: A) Add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery (EDD) by taking the first
day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days. This
assumes a 28-day cycle and 280-day gestation.
2. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding
would indicate severe preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure of 142/90 mmHg
• B) Proteinuria of 1+
• C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
• D) Mild headache
,Correct Answer: C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg,
proteinuria ≥5 grams/24 hours, oliguria, cerebral or visual disturbances, epigastric pain,
and thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/mm³). A platelet count of 80,000 indicates
severe disease.
3. A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with contractions every 3 minutes,
lasting 60 seconds. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated and 90% effaced. Which phase of
labor is she in?
• A) Latent phase
• B) Active phase
• C) Transition phase
• D) Second stage
Correct Answer: B) Active phase
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by cervical dilation
from 4-6 cm to 7 cm, with more frequent and intense contractions. The latent phase is 0-3
cm, transition is 8-10 cm, and the second stage begins at full dilation (10 cm).
4. A postpartum client is diagnosed with a uterine inversion. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
• A) Administer oxytocin immediately
• B) Call the provider and prepare for manual replacement
• C) Massage the fundus firmly
• D) Apply ice packs to the perineum
Correct Answer: B) Call the provider and prepare for manual replacement
Rationale: Uterine inversion is a medical emergency. The priority is to notify the provider
immediately and prepare for manual replacement of the uterus. Oxytocin is
contraindicated until the uterus is replaced, as it can cause further inversion.
,5. Which of the following is a normal finding in the newborn during the first 24
hours of life?
• A) Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute
• B) Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• C) Acrocyanosis (blue hands and feet)
• D) Grunting respirations
Correct Answer: C) Acrocyanosis (blue hands and feet)
Rationale: Acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the hands and feet) is a normal finding in
the first 24-48 hours of life due to immature peripheral circulation. A respiratory rate of 70
is tachypneic, a heart rate of 90 is bradycardic, and grunting respirations indicate
respiratory distress.
6. A client at 20 weeks gestation is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of
the following is the correct screening protocol for gestational diabetes?
• A) 50-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 1 hour
• B) 100-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 2 hours
• C) Fasting blood glucose only
• D) Hemoglobin A1C only
Correct Answer: A) 50-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 1 hour
Rationale: The standard screening for gestational diabetes is the 50-g glucose challenge
test (GCT), with blood drawn 1 hour later. A result ≥130-140 mg/dL indicates the need for
the diagnostic 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
7. A client in labor is receiving oxytocin. Which finding would indicate a
complication requiring immediate intervention?
• A) Contractions every 3 minutes
• B) Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
, • C) Uterine resting tone of 30 mmHg
• D) Maternal heart rate of 80 bpm
Correct Answer: C) Uterine resting tone of 30 mmHg
Rationale: Normal uterine resting tone is 10-15 mmHg. A resting tone of 30 mmHg
indicates uterine hyperstimulation, which can compromise placental perfusion and cause
fetal distress. The oxytocin infusion should be stopped immediately.
8. A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Which of the
following is the correct interpretation?
• A) The newborn is severely depressed
• B) The newborn is moderately depressed but improving
• C) The newborn is in excellent condition
• D) The newborn requires immediate resuscitation
Correct Answer: B) The newborn is moderately depressed but improving
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4-6 at 1 minute indicates moderate depression, while a score
of 7-10 indicates a healthy newborn. The improvement from 6 to 8 shows the newborn is
responding well to initial interventions.
9. A client at 12 weeks gestation complains of nausea and vomiting. Which of the
following interventions is most appropriate?
• A) Advise the client to eat large, heavy meals
• B) Encourage the client to eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
• C) Recommend lying flat after meals
• D) Suggest drinking fluids with meals
Correct Answer: B) Encourage the client to eat dry crackers before getting out of
bed
Practice Questions (Latest 2026-2027)
Pass your RNSG 1517 Maternity Assessment on your very first attempt with this
comprehensive, high-yield nursing study package. This clinical resource delivers a deep
dive into maternal-newborn concepts, including stages of labor, fetal monitoring
patterns, postpartum complications, and neonatal assessment parameters. Eliminate
testing anxiety and master high-stakes NCLEX-style priority items using realistic
obstetrical vignettes modeled directly after the official nursing curriculum blueprint.
1. Naegele's rule is used to calculate the estimated date of delivery. Which of the
following is the correct formula?
• A) Add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual
period
• B) Add 9 months to the date of conception
• C) Subtract 7 days and add 3 months from the first day of the last menstrual
period
• D) Add 14 days to the first day of the last menstrual period
Correct Answer: A) Add 7 days and subtract 3 months from the first day of the last
menstrual period
Rationale: Naegele's rule calculates the estimated date of delivery (EDD) by taking the first
day of the last menstrual period (LMP), subtracting 3 months, and adding 7 days. This
assumes a 28-day cycle and 280-day gestation.
2. A client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which finding
would indicate severe preeclampsia?
• A) Blood pressure of 142/90 mmHg
• B) Proteinuria of 1+
• C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
• D) Mild headache
,Correct Answer: C) Platelet count of 80,000/mm³
Rationale: Severe preeclampsia is characterized by blood pressure ≥160/110 mmHg,
proteinuria ≥5 grams/24 hours, oliguria, cerebral or visual disturbances, epigastric pain,
and thrombocytopenia (platelets <100,000/mm³). A platelet count of 80,000 indicates
severe disease.
3. A client at 38 weeks gestation is admitted with contractions every 3 minutes,
lasting 60 seconds. Her cervix is 6 cm dilated and 90% effaced. Which phase of
labor is she in?
• A) Latent phase
• B) Active phase
• C) Transition phase
• D) Second stage
Correct Answer: B) Active phase
Rationale: The active phase of the first stage of labor is characterized by cervical dilation
from 4-6 cm to 7 cm, with more frequent and intense contractions. The latent phase is 0-3
cm, transition is 8-10 cm, and the second stage begins at full dilation (10 cm).
4. A postpartum client is diagnosed with a uterine inversion. What is the priority
nursing intervention?
• A) Administer oxytocin immediately
• B) Call the provider and prepare for manual replacement
• C) Massage the fundus firmly
• D) Apply ice packs to the perineum
Correct Answer: B) Call the provider and prepare for manual replacement
Rationale: Uterine inversion is a medical emergency. The priority is to notify the provider
immediately and prepare for manual replacement of the uterus. Oxytocin is
contraindicated until the uterus is replaced, as it can cause further inversion.
,5. Which of the following is a normal finding in the newborn during the first 24
hours of life?
• A) Respiratory rate of 70 breaths per minute
• B) Heart rate of 90 beats per minute
• C) Acrocyanosis (blue hands and feet)
• D) Grunting respirations
Correct Answer: C) Acrocyanosis (blue hands and feet)
Rationale: Acrocyanosis (bluish discoloration of the hands and feet) is a normal finding in
the first 24-48 hours of life due to immature peripheral circulation. A respiratory rate of 70
is tachypneic, a heart rate of 90 is bradycardic, and grunting respirations indicate
respiratory distress.
6. A client at 20 weeks gestation is scheduled for a glucose tolerance test. Which of
the following is the correct screening protocol for gestational diabetes?
• A) 50-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 1 hour
• B) 100-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 2 hours
• C) Fasting blood glucose only
• D) Hemoglobin A1C only
Correct Answer: A) 50-g glucose load, with blood drawn at 1 hour
Rationale: The standard screening for gestational diabetes is the 50-g glucose challenge
test (GCT), with blood drawn 1 hour later. A result ≥130-140 mg/dL indicates the need for
the diagnostic 3-hour 100-g oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT).
7. A client in labor is receiving oxytocin. Which finding would indicate a
complication requiring immediate intervention?
• A) Contractions every 3 minutes
• B) Fetal heart rate of 140 bpm
, • C) Uterine resting tone of 30 mmHg
• D) Maternal heart rate of 80 bpm
Correct Answer: C) Uterine resting tone of 30 mmHg
Rationale: Normal uterine resting tone is 10-15 mmHg. A resting tone of 30 mmHg
indicates uterine hyperstimulation, which can compromise placental perfusion and cause
fetal distress. The oxytocin infusion should be stopped immediately.
8. A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Which of the
following is the correct interpretation?
• A) The newborn is severely depressed
• B) The newborn is moderately depressed but improving
• C) The newborn is in excellent condition
• D) The newborn requires immediate resuscitation
Correct Answer: B) The newborn is moderately depressed but improving
Rationale: An Apgar score of 4-6 at 1 minute indicates moderate depression, while a score
of 7-10 indicates a healthy newborn. The improvement from 6 to 8 shows the newborn is
responding well to initial interventions.
9. A client at 12 weeks gestation complains of nausea and vomiting. Which of the
following interventions is most appropriate?
• A) Advise the client to eat large, heavy meals
• B) Encourage the client to eat dry crackers before getting out of bed
• C) Recommend lying flat after meals
• D) Suggest drinking fluids with meals
Correct Answer: B) Encourage the client to eat dry crackers before getting out of
bed
